Step 1: Concept
Use the property $\int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx$.
Step 2: Meaning
Let $I$ be the given integral. Replacing $x$ with $\pi/2 - x$ gives a second form for $I$.
Step 3: Analysis
$I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\cos^{100}x}{\cos^{100}x + \sin^{100}x} dx$. Adding the two forms of $I$: $2I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sin^{100}x + \cos^{100}x}{\sin^{100}x + \cos^{100}x} dx = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} 1 dx = \pi/2$.
Step 4: Conclusion
$2I = \pi/2 \implies I = \pi/4$.
Final Answer: (B)