List of top Veterinary Science Questions asked in ICAR AIEEA (PG)

Double poured tapeworm of sheep and goats is

Tracheal route of migration is found in
(A) Toxocara canis
(B) Toxascaris leonina
(C) Ascaris suum
(D) Parascaris equorum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Villous atrophy is associated with
(A) Eimeria ovinoidalis
(B) Trichostrongylus colubriformis
(C) Nematodirus battus
(D) Strongyloides papillosus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following parasite does not cause pimply gut condition in animals?

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections affecting WBCs is a cause of Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and death
Reason (R) : The disease causing intrinsic factors are present within the body of host such as malfunctioning of immune system resulting in immunodeficiency disease and host may die due to secondary bacterial infection
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

What type of tissue changes develops when host animal is exposed to Clostridium perfringens infection?

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Allergy to penicillin is example of Type 1 hypersensitivity and may be sometimes with fatal outcome.
Reason (R) : Type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE and Mast cell which undergo degranulation leading to heavy release of histamine that cause vasodialation
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

The broad functions of the complement system are mentioned below. Choose the set of correct statements
(A) Activation of complement cascade and thereby mediate inflammation
(B) Direct killing of target cells/microbes by lysis
(C) Do not bind with apoptotic cells and antigen antibody complex
(D) Opsonization (labeling) of pathogens and cells for clearance/destruction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Process of antibody formation is a slow-acting, long-lasting, and more specific adaptive immune response. The adaptive immune response in B cells, Helper T cells and Cytotoxic T cells involve four phases mentioned below. Arrange these phases according to the order of occurence from first to last.
(A) Activation: Activation responses involve both changes in gene expression and in the initiation of cell division.
(B) Memory: Long-lived, pre-activated immune cells that wait for a subsequent infection are formed in the memory phase of the adaptive immune response.
(C) Encounter: Cells must first encounter antigens by binding specifically to them using specialized membrane proteins.
(D) Attack: The immune cells attack invading pathogens or infected cells.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Mismatched blood transfusion is adverse reaction of Type 2 complement mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
Reason (R) : Natural killer cells play a role in destruction of transformed cells.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Upon inoculation into a new nutrient medium, the bacteria shows four distinct phases of growth. Arrange these phases according to the order they occur:
(A) Log phase
(B) Phase of decline
(C) Stationary phase
(D) Lag phase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Read the following statements about immunoglobulin M (IgM)
(A) IgM is the initial antibody produced during immune response to a foreign pathogen.
(B) IgM is a pentamer joined by J-chain with 10 F(ab) fragments and 10 paratopes
(C) Very high IgM levels are found in a group of primary immunodeficiencies characterized by susceptibility to infections and malignancies
(D) IgM cross placeta from mother to fetus and thus protects newborn progeny from intrauterine infections
Choose the correct answers from the options given below:

Given below are two statements
Statement (I) : Phagocytosis is a cellular process for ingesting and eliminating particles, including foreign substances, microorganisms, and apoptotic cells.
Statement (II) : The process of phagocytosis involves several sequential steps, namely, Particle recognition, Particle ingestion, Phagosome formation, Phagolysosome formation and digestion
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

Peptidoglycan is a complex polymer of sugars and amino acids; the substance from which bacterial cell walls are made. Choose set of correct statements below with respect to peptidoglycan:
(A) A rigid layer of peptidoglycan consist of NAG and NAM which is crosslinked by short peptides
(B) Antibiotics including penicillin does not inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis
(C) Gram positive bacteria contain thick layer of peptidoglycan
(D) Gram negative bacteria have less peptidoglycan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

How does an antibiotic penicillin work against bacteria?

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to Bovine Herpesvirus-1 (BoHV-1) infection?

Which of the following structural component is found in all animal viruses?

Vibrio cholerae is a Gram negative bacteria. Based on the name and the staining character of the bacterium, what is it's shape and colour when observed under microscope?

Which of the following poxvirus infections is NOT an animal pox?

Sequence of events in the formation of eye are
(A) Formation of optic grooves
(B) Optic vesicles formation
(C) Optic cup formation
(D) Formation of lens placodes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Optic grooves are primordia for ocular development.
Reason (R) : Optic groove appear at the end of neurulation prior to closure of the rostral neuropore.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Sweeney or loose shoulder is a condition where scapula is held away from body.
Reason (R) : Radial nerve paralysis causes sweeney.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Excessive craniocaudal movement of the tibia relative to femur is called cranial drawer.
Reason (R) : Cranial drawer occurs due to rupture of cruciate ligament.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Horse ergot is actually rudimentary

The cells which participate in the osteogenesis are
(A) Osteoclasts
(B) Osteoblasts
(C) Osteocytes
(D) Fibrocytes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: