Comprehension
The other material which prompted the High Court to reach the conclusion that the subsoil/minerals vest in the State is … recitals of a patta which ….. states that if minerals are found in the property covered by the patta and if the pattadar exploits those minerals, the pattadar is liable for a separate tax in addition to the tax shown in the patta and …. certain standing orders of the Collector of Malabar which provided for collection of seigniorage fee in the event of the mining operation being carried on. We are of the clear opinion that the recitals in the patta or the Collector’s standing order that the exploitation of mineral wealth in the patta land would attract additional tax, in our opinion, cannot in any way indicate the ownership of the State in the minerals. The power to tax is a necessary incident of sovereign authority (imperium) but not an incident of proprietary rights (dominium). Proprietary right is a compendium of rights consisting of various constituent, rights. If a person has only a share in the produce of some property, it can never be said that such property vests in such a person. In the instant case, the State asserted its ‘right’ to demand a share in the ‘produce of the minerals worked’ though the expression employed is right – it is in fact the Sovereign authority which is asserted. From the language of the BSO No.10 it is clear that such right to demand the share could be exercised only when the pattadar or somebody claiming through the pattadar, extracts/works the minerals – the authority of the State to collect money on the happening of an event – such a demand is more in the nature of an excise duty/a tax. The assertion of authority to collect a duty or tax is in the realm of the sovereign authority, but not a proprietary right….
The only other submission which we are required to deal with before we part with this matter is the argument of the learned counsel for the State that in view of the scheme of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (hereafter ‘MMDRA’) which prohibits under Section 4 the carrying on of any mining activity in this country except in accordance with the permit, licence or mining lease as the case may be, granted under the Act, the appellants cannot claim any proprietary right in the sub-soil…
[Extract from the judgment in Thressiamma Jacob v. Dept. of Mining & Geology, (2013) 9 SCC 725] (hereafter ‘T Jacob’)
Question: 1

The MMDRA enacted by Parliament grants the Union Government the:

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • Right to obtain ownership of land containing mineral wealth
  • Power to exclude the State Government from ownership rights of land containing mineral wealth
  • Right to regulate the grant of mining rights
  • Right to impose taxes on all mining activities
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is C

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (C): Right to regulate the grant of mining rights.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was enacted by Parliament under its power over mines and mineral development declared to be in the public interest. The question asks exactly what this grant of power to the Union amounts to.

  1. Right to obtain ownership of land containing mineral wealth: The Act does not transfer ownership of land or its minerals to the Union. Ownership of land, and of the minerals under it, continues to rest with whoever held it before, whether that is a private landowner, a community, or a State, subject only to the regulatory conditions the Act imposes. The Act controls how mining is carried out, it does not make the Union the owner.
  2. Power to exclude the State Government from ownership rights of land containing mineral wealth: The Act does not strip States of whatever ownership rights they hold either. States remain owners of the land vested in them and continue to grant mining leases within the framework the Act sets, subject to Union rules on matters like royalty rates and lease conditions. The Act channels and limits how that ownership is exercised, it does not exclude the States from ownership altogether.
  3. Right to regulate the grant of mining rights: Section 4 of the Act bars any mining operation unless it is carried out under a prospecting licence or mining lease granted according to the Act's rules, and the Act lays down the procedure, terms and conditions for granting such leases, along with the power to make rules on royalty and other matters. This is a regulatory power over how mining rights are granted and exercised, which is exactly what the Act gives the Union.
  4. Right to impose taxes on all mining activities: The Act does provide for royalty payments on minerals removed, but royalty is a payment tied to the grant of a mining lease, not a general taxing power over all mining activity as such. Taxation as a distinct power is dealt with separately in the Constitution's fiscal provisions, and the Act's core purpose is licensing and regulation, not revenue collection through taxes.

The scheme of the Act is built around controlling who may mine, where, and on what terms, which is a regulatory function over the grant of mining rights, not a transfer of ownership or a general taxing power.

Therefore, the correct answer is Right to regulate the grant of mining rights.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 2

T Jacob dealt with the question of traditional proprietary rights of ownership of subsoil rights, and held that:
  1. Sub-soil rights are treated as ‘commons’ and are held by the State in public trust.
  2. There is nothing in the law which declares that all mineral wealth/ subsoil rights vest in the State.
  3. The owner of the land can be deprived of sub-soil rights by law.

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • (i) is correct
  • (ii) and (iii) are correct
  • (i) and (iii) are correct
  • None of the above is correct
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is B

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (B): (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

Thressiamma Jacob v. Department of Mining and Geology dealt with whether a landowner automatically loses ownership of the minerals under their land simply because the State regulates or taxes mining. The stem lists three propositions about what the case held, and the options combine them differently.

  1. (i) is correct: This option would mean sub-soil rights are treated as commons held in public trust by the State. That is not what the case held. The Court in fact rejected the idea that all sub-soil wealth automatically belongs to the State just because the State can tax or regulate mining, so treating minerals as a kind of public commons overstates the State's position.
  2. (ii) and (iii) are correct: The case held that there is no general rule of law declaring that all minerals or sub-soil rights vest in the State by default, ownership follows ordinary property law unless a specific statute says otherwise. It also recognised that a landowner's sub-soil rights can be taken away by a valid law, such as legislation like the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, which channels how minerals are extracted. Both of these points reflect the actual reasoning in the case.
  3. (i) and (iii) are correct: This combination keeps the incorrect "commons in public trust" proposition and pairs it with the correct point about deprivation by law. Since the first part misstates the holding, this combination cannot be right even though the second part is accurate.
  4. None of the above is correct: This would be true only if none of the three propositions matched the case, but (ii) and (iii) do reflect the actual holding, so this option is too sweeping.

The case confirms that mineral ownership is not presumed to belong to the State, while also confirming that a landowner's rights over the sub-soil can be removed by specific legislation.

Therefore, the correct answer is (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 3

The power to impose a tax on the produce of some land should be treated as:

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • Assertion that land is partly owned by government
  • Power of eminent domain
  • Assertion of a proprietary right
  • Assertion of a sovereign right
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is D

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (D): Assertion of a sovereign right.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

This question tests the distinction courts draw between a government's power to tax and a government's ownership of property. The power to impose a tax on the produce of land needs to be placed correctly within that distinction.

  1. Assertion that land is partly owned by government: Taxing the produce of land does not require the government to hold any share of ownership in that land. A State can tax income, produce or activity connected to land that is wholly owned by a private person, so the tax power does not signal partial ownership.
  2. Power of eminent domain: Eminent domain is the government's power to take over private property, usually with compensation, for a public purpose. Taxing produce leaves ownership of the land and its produce entirely with the private owner, nothing is taken over, so this is a different power altogether from taxation.
  3. Assertion of a proprietary right: A proprietary right belongs to whoever owns or holds an interest in the property, such as the right to possess, use, or transfer it. The power to tax comes from the government's political authority over persons and activities in its territory, not from holding any interest in the land itself, so it cannot be a proprietary right.
  4. Assertion of a sovereign right: Taxation is one of the classic powers a sovereign government exercises over everyone and everything within its territory, independent of whether the government owns any of the property involved. Taxing the produce of land is an exercise of this general governing authority, not a claim over the land as property.

Since taxing power flows from the government's authority to govern, and not from any ownership interest, it is best understood as an exercise of sovereign power rather than a property-based right.

Therefore, the correct answer is Assertion of a sovereign right.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 4

In common law, the owner of a piece of land is entitled to:
  1. Work on the surface of the land.
  2. Entitled to everything beneath the surface down to the centre of the earth.
  3. Entitled to everything below the surface except those minerals included under the MMDRA.

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • All are correct
  • Only (i) is correct
  • Only (i) and (ii) are correct
  • Only (i) and (iii) are correct
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is C

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (C): Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

This question is about the old common law maxim on land ownership, often phrased as "cuius est solum eius est usque ad coelum et usque ad inferos", meaning whoever owns the soil owns up to the sky and down to the depths. The three numbered statements test how far this maxim actually goes at common law, before any modern mining statute changes it.

  1. All are correct: This would require statement (iii) to also be a common law principle. But statement (iii) already carves out an exception for minerals covered by the Mines and Minerals Act, and the common law maxim itself does not know about a 1957 Indian statute, it simply grants everything below the surface without such a carve-out. Because (iii) describes a statutory modification rather than the common law rule, this option goes too far.
  2. Only (i) is correct: This limits the owner's rights to the surface alone, which understates the common law position. The classic maxim gives the landowner rights extending both upward and downward from the surface, not just the surface itself, so stopping at (i) leaves out a principle the common law does recognise.
  3. Only (i) and (ii) are correct: Statement (i), the right to work the surface, and statement (ii), the right to everything beneath the surface down to the centre of the earth, together capture the common law maxim in full. The maxim does not, on its own terms, carve out minerals for a statute, that carve-out is something legislation like the MMDRA later imposes on top of the common law position.
  4. Only (i) and (iii) are correct: This combination keeps the correct point about surface rights but swaps in the statutory exception instead of the common law's unlimited downward extension. Since (iii) reflects what a modern mining statute does, not what common law by itself grants, pairing it with (i) misdescribes the common law position that the question specifically asks about.

The common law rule about land ownership extends the owner's rights from the surface down to the centre of the earth without any built-in exception for minerals, an exception like the one in statement (iii) only comes from separate legislation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Only (i) and (ii) are correct.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 5

Under the Constitution of India, all property and assets, which vested in the British Crown for the purposes of the Government of the Dominion of India and Governor’s Provinces, stood:

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • Confiscated without payment
  • Repatriated back to the Crown
  • Vested in the Union of India
  • Vested in the Union of India and the states
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is D

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (D): Vested in the Union of India and the states.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

This question turns on how the Constitution deals with property that belonged to the Crown before independence. Article 294 of the Constitution answers exactly this, so let's test each option against what that Article actually says.

  1. Confiscated without payment: Confiscation would mean the property was seized and extinguished, with no successor holder. That is not what Article 294 does. It transfers ownership from the Crown to new constitutional entities, it does not wipe the property out or treat it as forfeited.
  2. Repatriated back to the Crown: Repatriation would mean sending the property back to Britain. Once India became a sovereign republic, there was no question of assets flowing back to the Crown. This option runs in the opposite direction of what actually happened.
  3. Vested in the Union of India: This captures only half the picture. Article 294 draws a distinction between property that was held by the Crown for the Dominion of India, which does go to the Union, and property that was held by the Crown for a Governor's Province, which goes to the corresponding State. Naming only the Union leaves out the second category.
  4. Vested in the Union of India and the states: Article 294(a) provides that property and assets vested in His Majesty for the purposes of the Government of the Dominion of India pass to the Union, while property vested in His Majesty for the purposes of the Government of each Governor's Province pass to the corresponding State. Both transfers happen at the same constitutional moment, so the property is split between the Union and the states depending on which government it was held for.

Since Article 294(a) expressly routes Dominion level Crown property to the Union and Province level Crown property to the states, only the option covering both destinations is accurate.

The correct answer is vested in the Union of India and the states.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 6

The Constitution of India, vests all lands, minerals, and other things of value under the ocean floor within the territorial waters:

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • In the Union of India
  • In the respective states having a shoreline
  • In the Union and all states in the Union
  • Are treated as ‘res commune’
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is A

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (A): In the Union of India.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

This question is about ownership of the seabed and its resources within India's territorial waters. Article 297 of the Constitution deals directly with this, so each option can be checked against its text.

  1. In the Union of India: Article 297(1) states that all lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters, the continental shelf, or the exclusive economic zone of India vest in the Union and are held for the purposes of the Union. This is the exact rule the Constitution lays down.
  2. In the respective states having a shoreline: A coastal state's boundary does not extend automatically into the territorial sea for resource ownership purposes. The seabed and its minerals are treated as a national asset under the Union's control, not as an extension of the adjoining state's territory.
  3. In the Union and all states in the Union: This would apply a shared ownership model, but Article 297 does not create any joint vesting with the states. It names only the Union as the holder of these offshore resources.
  4. Are treated as res commune: Res commune describes things incapable of exclusive ownership, like the high seas beyond any nation's jurisdiction. Within India's own territorial waters, the Constitution assigns definite ownership to the Union, so the resources are not left as a commons.

Article 297 leaves no room for state ownership or a commons characterisation, it names the Union of India as the sole holder of undersea lands and minerals within territorial waters.

The correct answer is In the Union of India.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 7

The Supreme Court in State of Meghalaya v. All Dimasa Students Union Hasao [2019] held that in the Sixth Schedule State of Meghalaya, where most lands are either privately or community-owned:
  1. Landowners of privately owned/ community owned lands can lease their lands for mining.
  2. The State Government alone can grant a lease for mining in privately owned/ community owned lands.
  3. Landowners of privately owned/ community owned lands can lease their lands for mining after obtaining previous approval of the Central Government through the State Government.
  4. All of the above

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • (iv) is correct
  • (ii) and (iii) are correct
  • (i) and (iii) are correct
  • None of the above is correct
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is C

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (C): (i) and (iii) are correct.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

This question tests the Supreme Court's ruling in State of Meghalaya v. All Dimasa Students' Union, Hasao District Committee, which dealt with mining leases over land in the Sixth Schedule areas of Meghalaya, where land is mostly privately or community owned rather than owned by the state. Let's check each combination against what the Court actually held.

  1. Landowners of privately owned or community owned lands can lease their lands for mining: Because the state does not own most land in these Sixth Schedule areas, the Court recognised that the private or community landowner, not the state government, is the person competent to grant a mining lease over that land. This statement is correct.
  2. The State Government alone can grant a lease for mining in privately owned or community owned lands: This gets the position backwards. The Court's reasoning proceeds precisely because ownership rests with private persons or communities rather than the state, so it is the landowner, not the state acting alone, who grants the lease.
  3. Landowners can lease their lands for mining after obtaining previous approval of the Central Government through the State Government: Even though the landowner grants the lease, mining leases remain subject to the regulatory scheme of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, particularly the requirement of prior Central Government approval routed through the state. The Court held that this statutory safeguard still applies even though ownership is private or communal. This statement is correct.
  4. All of the above: This cannot be right because it bundles in the second statement, which wrongly gives the state government sole authority to grant the lease.

Only the first and third statements survive scrutiny: landowners can grant mining leases over their own land, but that grant still needs the Central Government's prior approval routed through the state, consistent with the national regulatory scheme for minerals.

The correct answer is (i) and (iii) are correct.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 8

Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 states that a lease of immovable property is a transfer of a right to enjoy such property under certain conditions. The right to ‘enjoy such property’:

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • Includes the right to carry on mining operation in the surface of the land
  • Includes the right to carry on mining operation in the sub-soil of the land
  • Includes the right to extract the specified quantity of the minerals found therein, to remove and appropriate that mineral
  • All the above
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is D

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (D): All the above.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 defines a lease as a transfer of a right to enjoy immovable property, made for a certain time or in perpetuity, in consideration of a price paid or promised. The question asks how far that right to enjoy extends when the leased property contains minerals. Let's test each option.

  1. Includes the right to carry on mining operation on the surface of the land: Enjoyment of leased land ordinarily includes using its surface for the purpose the lease was granted for, and a mining lease is granted precisely so that surface operations connected with extraction can be carried out. This is a valid part of the right to enjoy.
  2. Includes the right to carry on mining operation in the sub-soil of the land: A mining lease would be meaningless if it stopped at the surface, since the minerals being leased lie beneath it. The right to enjoy the property under such a lease extends below the surface to reach the minerals themselves.
  3. Includes the right to extract the specified quantity of minerals found therein, to remove and appropriate that mineral: The entire commercial purpose of a mining lease is to take the mineral out and keep it, in exchange for royalty or rent paid to the lessor. Without this right to extract, remove and appropriate, the lease would give the lessee nothing of value.
  4. All the above: Since surface access, sub-soil working, and extraction with appropriation are all necessary components of what a mining lease is meant to confer, none of the first three statements can be excluded from the meaning of enjoy such property in this context.

Each of the first three statements describes one stage of the same underlying activity, gaining access, working the deposit, and taking the mineral, so all three together make up the full content of the lessee's right to enjoy the property.

The correct answer is All the above.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 9

The need for environmental clearance under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 is required for a project of coal mining:

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • In all lands whether privately, community, or publicly owned
  • Only in lands owned by the Union Government
  • Only in lands owned by the state government
  • Only where sustainability is threatened
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is A

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (A): In all lands whether privately, community, or publicly owned.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

This question is about when environmental clearance becomes mandatory for a coal mining project under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. The trigger for clearance is set by the Environment Impact Assessment Notification issued under that Act, so the focus should be on what that notification actually looks at.

  1. In all lands whether privately, community, or publicly owned: The EIA Notification classifies projects, including mining projects, by category and scale, such as the area to be mined or the extent of proposed excavation, not by who owns the land underneath. A coal mining project crossing the notified threshold needs clearance regardless of whether the land is private, community, or government land.
  2. Only in lands owned by the Union Government: Environmental clearance requirements are not tied to Union ownership of the land. Many mining projects operate on privately owned or state owned land and still require clearance once the scale of the project meets the threshold.
  3. Only in lands owned by the state government: The same reasoning applies here. Ownership by a state government is not the criterion that triggers or excuses the clearance requirement.
  4. Only where sustainability is threatened: Requiring a case by case judgment about whether sustainability is already threatened, before deciding if clearance is even needed, would defeat the preventive purpose of environmental clearance, which is meant to assess impact before the project starts, not after damage becomes visible.

Because the clearance requirement is triggered by the nature and scale of the mining activity itself, not by who happens to hold title to the land, coal mining projects need clearance across all categories of land ownership.

The correct answer is In all lands whether privately, community, or publicly owned.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Question: 10

The Constitution of India provides that all properties within the territory of India that do not have a lawful heir, successor or rightful owner, accrue to the Union or state where it is situate through:

Updated On: Jul 8, 2026
  • Escheat
  • Lapse
  • Bona vacantia
  • All the above
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is D

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (D): All the above.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

This question is about Article 296 of the Constitution, which deals with property that has no lawful heir, no successor, and no rightful owner. The Article uses specific legal terms for how such property passes to the state, so each option can be matched against that language.

  1. Escheat: Escheat is the traditional common law doctrine under which land reverts to the sovereign when the owner dies without heirs or a valid will. Article 296 expressly names escheat as one of the ways ownerless property accrues to the Union or a state, so this is one correct route, but not the only one.
  2. Lapse: Lapse refers to property, particularly a gift or bequest, that fails to take effect, for instance because the intended beneficiary predeceases the testator or does not fulfil a condition attached to the transfer. Article 296 also lists lapse as a distinct route by which property can accrue to the state, alongside escheat.
  3. Bona vacantia: Bona vacantia literally means vacant goods, property that simply has no owner at all, such as the assets of a dissolved company or an intestate estate with no eligible heirs. Article 296 names this as the third route through which ownerless property vests in the Union or the states.
  4. All the above: Article 296 does not pick just one of these three doctrines, it lists escheat, lapse, and bona vacantia together as the recognised ways property without a lawful owner accrues to the Union or the concerned state.

Because the constitutional text names all three doctrines side by side rather than singling one out, no individual option among the first three can be treated as the complete answer.

The correct answer is All the above.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0

Top CLAT PG Questions

View More Questions