Question:

In a binomial distribution, the mean is 4 and variance is 3. Then its mode is:

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For binomial, mode ≈ (n+1)p.
Updated On: Mar 20, 2026
  • 5
  • 6
  • 4
  • None of these
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation


Step 1:
Mean np=4, variance npq=3⟹ q=(3)/(4)⟹ p=\frac14.
Step 2:
Mode =lfloor (n+1)prfloor=\lfloor5·\frac14rfloor=1 or nearest integer gives 4.
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