Question

A 40-year-old male presents with recurrent painful oral ulcers, ocular inflammation, and is found to be HLA-B51 positive on genetic testing. Which of the following conditions best explains this presentation?

• A. Sweet’s syndrome
• B. Behcet’s syndrome
• C. MAGIC syndrome
• D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Hint:

Recurrent oral ulcers + genital ulcers + uveitis + HLA-B51 association strongly suggest Behcet’s disease.

Answer 1

The Correct Option is B

Step 1: Identify key clinical features.
The patient has recurrent painful oral ulcers and ocular inflammationThese two findings together strongly suggest a systemic inflammatory or autoimmune disorder
Step 2: Importance of HLA-B51 association.
HLA-B51 is strongly associated with Behcet’s syndromeIt is considered a genetic risk factor and supports the diagnosis in the presence of characteristic clinical features
Step 3: Evaluate the options.
(A) Sweet’s syndrome: Characterized by fever and painful skin lesionsNot typically associated with recurrent oral ulcers and HLA-B51
(B) Behcet’s syndrome: Characterized by recurrent oral ulcers, genital ulcers, uveitis, and systemic vasculitisStrongly associated with HLA-B51
(C) MAGIC syndrome: A rare overlap of Behcet’s disease and relapsing polychondritisNot the primary diagnosis here
(D) Systemic lupus erythematosus: May cause oral ulcers but is not associated with HLA-B51 and typically presents with other systemic findings
Step 4: Conclusion.
The triad of recurrent oral ulcers, ocular inflammation, and HLA-B51 positivity is characteristic of Behcet’s syndrome