List of top Questions asked in AIBE- 2026

In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: Allegations have been made by the Minority Shareholders that ABC's promoters sold the optionally convertible preference shares and redeemable preference shares to a trust controlled by ABC's promoters at prices significantly below their fair market value, thereby causing a financial loss to ABC and its shareholders. What is the recourse for minority shareholders under law?
Conclusion I: The Minority Shareholders can file for class action under Section 245 of the Companies Act, 2013, seeking directions from NCLT to either reverse the sale of optionally convertible preference shares and redeemable preference shares or to compensate the Minority Shareholders. Conclusion II: The aggrieved members may proceed individually to protect their rights against acts of oppression or mismanagement under Section 241 of the Companies Act, 2013. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
Under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, in which of the following scenarios does the "Right of Private Defence of the Body" extend to the extent of voluntarily causing death to the assailant?
Whether a landowner who enters into a Joint Development Agreement with a builder, contributing land in exchange for 50% of the developed property and a monetary deposit can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 alleging construction defects and delay? Which of the following statements is most accurate?
Pursuant to the definition provided in Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following constitutes an essential element of the offence of 'Theft'?
The adoption of an Ombudsman-type institution in India was first recommended by which of the following?
X takes a loan of 10,00,000 from Bank A. Y signs a contract as surety... Bank A agrees to reduce the interest rate and extends the repayment period by 6 months without informing Y... Which of the following statements correctly describes Y's liability under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Under constitutional jurisprudence in India, repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances without placing them before the Legislature was described by the Supreme Court as a "fraud on the Constitution" in which decision?
Under the Constitution of India, Parliament enacts legislation to implement India's obligations under an international environmental agreement. The subject ordinarily falls within the State List and no resolution under Article 252 has been passed. The source of Parliament's competence would be:
The Supreme Court of India in Harish Chandra Tiwari v. Baiju, (2002) 2 SCC 67, while considering the appropriate punishment for misappropriation of a client's money by an advocate, held that:
Assertion (A): The right to privacy has been judicially recognised as an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Reason (R): Privacy is expressly enumerated as a separate Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution of India. In the context of the Constitution of India and the decision in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017), which one of the following is correct?
Under which specific provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, has the definition of a 'Terrorist Act' been formally integrated into India's general penal legislation for the first time?
According to Section 56(2)(x), of the Income-tax Act, 1961, if an individual receives a sum of money, without consideration, from a person other than a relative, and the amount exceeds the prescribed limit. What is the correct legal position?
A, an 18-year-old adult of sound mind, executes a written instrument in favour of B stating, "I promise to pay B 75,000 on 1st April next year." A is fully competent, has signed the note, and the instrument contains all essential elements of a promissory note. B sues A for recovery after 1st April when A defaults. Examine the correct legal position.
Under the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872, between which hours must a marriage generally be solemnized?
Which of the following does not fall under the framework of presumption under Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
Assertion (A): Income-tax is levied on the total income of a person for the previous year. Reason (R): Income earned during the previous year is assessed to tax in the immediately succeeding assessment year under the Income-tax Act, 1961.
The five Golden Principles with respect to Circumstantial Evidence were laid down in which Supreme Court Judgment?
According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, an accused person intending to apply for 'Plea Bargaining' must do so within how many days following the formal framing of charges?
A mandatory PUC Certificate is provided under which Section and Rule?
Judicial intervention in arbitration proceedings is limited under Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In which of the following situations may a court intervene?
A State Government plans to acquire 50 acres of Scheduled Tribes (ST) land for an industrial park. Which of the following statements is correct?
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, 'Forfeiture of Property' is listed as a punishment. In which specific case is this most commonly applied?
Which of the following is not a document as per the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
In accordance with the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a court, while examining pleadings, finds certain averments to be unnecessary and capable of prejudicing or delaying the fair trial, the court, in such a case, may:
Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with "fast track merger". What is the time duration and the concerned authority for approval?