Concept:
This problem can be solved using the property of definite integrals:
$$\int_{0}^{a} f(x) \, dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) \, dx$$
Step 1: Define the integral and apply the property.
Let $I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sin^{3/2} x}{\sin^{3/2} x + \cos^{3/2} x} \, dx \quad \text{---(1)}$
Applying the property $x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2} - x$:
$$I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sin^{3/2} (\frac{\pi}{2} - x)}{\sin^{3/2} (\frac{\pi}{2} - x) + \cos^{3/2} (\frac{\pi}{2} - x)} \, dx$$
Since $\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \cos x$ and $\cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - x) = \sin x$, the integral becomes:
$$I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\cos^{3/2} x}{\cos^{3/2} x + \sin^{3/2} x} \, dx \quad \text{---(2)}$$
Step 2: Combine the two expressions.
Adding equations (1) and (2):
$$2I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \left( \frac{\sin^{3/2} x + \cos^{3/2} x}{\sin^{3/2} x + \cos^{3/2} x} \right) dx$$
$$2I = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} 1 \, dx$$
Step 3: Final integration.
$$2I = [x]_{0}^{\pi/2}$$
$$2I = \frac{\pi}{2} - 0$$
$$I = \frac{\pi}{4}$$