Step 1: Understanding the Question:
We are given a definite integral involving trigonometric functions bounded between $0$ and $\frac{\pi}{2}$.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
This problem relies on a very famous property of definite integrals, often called the "King's Rule":
$$\int_0^a f(x) \, dx = \int_0^a f(a - x) \, dx$$
Here, $a = \frac{\pi}{2}$. By substituting $\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right)$ for $x$ everywhere in the integrand, the sine functions will change to cosine, and the cosine functions will change to sine.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Let the given integral be $I$:
$$I = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 - \sin x \cos x} \, dx \quad \dots \text{(Equation 1)}$$
Apply the King's Rule substitution ($x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2} - x$):
$$I = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) - \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right)}{1 - \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right) \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2} - x\right)} \, dx$$
Using the complementary angle identities ($\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}-x) = \cos x$ and $\cos(\frac{\pi}{2}-x) = \sin x$):
$$I = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos x - \sin x}{1 - \cos x \sin x} \, dx \quad \dots \text{(Equation 2)}$$
Notice that the numerator in Equation 2 is exactly the negative of the numerator in Equation 1. We can factor out a $-1$:
$$I = -\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{1 - \sin x \cos x} \, dx$$
This gives us:
$$I = -I$$
Now, solve for $I$:
$$2I = 0$$
$$I = 0$$
Step 4: Final Answer:
The value of the definite integral is $0$, corresponding to option (C).