Step 1: Perfect capital mobility. With free capital flows, the domestic interest rate is pinned at the world rate: $r=r^\ast$. Hence any deviation triggers capital flows and exchange-rate adjustment (under floating) or reserve flows/sterilisation (under fixed).
Step 2: Floating exchange rate. {Fiscal expansion} shifts IS $\Rightarrow$ tends to raise $r$, but $r$ cannot exceed $r^\ast$. Capital inflow appreciates the currency ($e$ falls), $NX$ decreases, shifting IS back until $Y$ returns to its initial level. $\Rightarrow$ Fiscal policy is ineffective. {Monetary expansion} shifts LM right, $rMonetary policy is effective.
Step 3: Fixed exchange rate. {Monetary expansion} initially lowers $r$, causing depreciation pressure; to defend the peg the central bank sells foreign reserves and contracts $M$, shifting LM back $\Rightarrow$ no change in $Y$ (ineffective). {Fiscal expansion} raises $r$ and creates appreciation pressure; to keep the peg the central bank buys foreign currency, increasing $M$, shifting LM right so $Y$ rises (effective).
Final Answer: (A), (D)

