Question:

If the mean of a binomial distribution is twice its variance and \(n=18\), then the probability of success is...

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Use mean equal to np and variance equal to npq, then compare.
Updated On: Nov 12, 2026
  • \(1\)
  • \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • \(\frac{2}{3}\)
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Concept
For a binomial distribution, mean \(=np\) and variance \(=npq\) with \(q=1-p\).

Step 2: Use the condition
\(np=2\,npq\Rightarrow1=2q\Rightarrow q=\frac{1}{2}\).

Step 3: Find p
\(p=1-q=\frac{1}{2}\).

Step 4: Note
The value \(n=18\) is not needed to find \(p\).

Final Answer:
The probability of success is one half. \[ \boxed{\text{(B) }\dfrac{1}{2}} \]
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