Question:

If \((G,*)\) is a group such that \((a*b)^2 = (a*a)*(b*b)\) for all \(a,b \in G\) then \(G\) is

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Use cancellation laws to simplify the given condition.
Updated On: Apr 23, 2026
  • abelian
  • finite
  • infinite
  • None of these
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Formula / Definition}
\[ (a*b)^2 = a^2 * b^2 \]
Step 2: Calculation / Simplification}
\((a*b)*(a*b) = a*a*b*b\)
Left multiply by \(a^{-1}\): \(b*a*b = a*b*b\)
Right multiply by \(b^{-1}\): \(b*a = a*b\)
\(\therefore G\) is abelian.
Step 3: Final Answer
\[ \text{abelian} \]
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