Question:

If f(x)=cos⁻1[(1-(log x)²)/(1+(log x)²)], then the value of f'(e) is equal to

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Recognizing standard trigonometric identities can simplify inverse-trig derivatives drastically.
Updated On: Mar 19, 2026
  • 1
  • (1)/(e)
  • (2)/(e)
  • (2)/(e²)
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

Note that: (1-t²)/(1+t²)=cos(2tan⁻1t) Here t=log x. Hence, f(x)=cos⁻1bigl(cos(2tan⁻1(log x))bigr) =2tan⁻1(log x) Differentiate: f'(x)=(2)/(1+(log x)²)·(1)/(x) At x=e, log x=1: f'(e)=(2)/(1+1)·(1)/(e)=(2)/(e)
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