Question:

Given that $\int_{0}^{1}\tan^{-1}(t)\,dt = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{1}{2}\log 2$, then $\int_{0}^{1}\tan^{-1}(1-t)\,dt =$

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Property $\int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx$ is the most frequently tested property of definite integrals.
Updated On: Apr 28, 2026
  • $\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\log 2$
  • $\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{1}{2}\log 3$
  • $\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\log 2$
  • $\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\log 2$
  • $\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{1}{2}\log 2$
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The Correct Option is

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Concept
Use the property $\int_{0}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_{0}^{a} f(a-x) dx$.

Step 2: Analysis

Let $I = \int_{0}^{1} \tan^{-1}(1-t) dt$. Applying the property where $a=1$: $I = \int_{0}^{1} \tan^{-1}(1 - (1-t)) dt$.

Step 3: Conclusion

$I = \int_{0}^{1} \tan^{-1}(t) dt$. The value is identical to the given integral. Final Answer: (E)
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