Given below are two statements. Assertion (A): For a random variable \(X\), if \(x=0,1,2,\ldots\) and
\[
P(X=x)=k\frac{\lambda^x}{x!},
\]
then for it to be a probability mass function, \(k=e^{-\lambda}\). Reason (R): In a probability distribution, the sum of all probabilities must be \(1\).
Show Hint
For a probability mass function, always use the condition \(\sum P(X=x)=1\).
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Show Solution
Verified By Collegedunia
The Correct Option isA
Solution and Explanation
Concept:
For any probability mass function:
\[
\sum P(X=x)=1
\]
Step 1: Use the given probability function.
\[
P(X=x)=k\frac{\lambda^x}{x!}
\]
Step 2: Sum over all possible values.
\[
\sum_{x=0}^{\infty}P(X=x)=\sum_{x=0}^{\infty}k\frac{\lambda^x}{x!}
\]
\[
k\sum_{x=0}^{\infty}\frac{\lambda^x}{x!}=1
\]
Step 3: Use exponential series.
\[
e^\lambda=\sum_{x=0}^{\infty}\frac{\lambda^x}{x!}
\]
So,
\[
ke^\lambda=1
\]
\[
k=e^{-\lambda}
\]
Therefore, Assertion is correct. Reason gives the rule used to derive \(k\), so it correctly explains Assertion.
\[
\therefore \text{Correct Answer is (A)}
\]