Step 1: Analyze \( x_n \).
The sequence \( x_n = 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \cdots + \frac{1}{n} - \log n \) is the sum of the harmonic series minus the logarithmic term.
The harmonic series diverges, but the subtraction of \( \log n \) ensures that \( x_n \) converges to a finite limit. Thus, \( (x_n) \) is convergent.
Step 2: Analyze \( y_n \).
The integral \( y_n = \int_1^n \frac{\cos t}{t^2} \, dt \) represents a function that decays as \( t \) increases because \( \frac{\cos t}{t^2} \) behaves similarly to \( \frac{1}{t^2} \), which converges to zero.
Since the integrand decays rapidly, the integral converges to a finite value. Therefore, \( (y_n) \) is convergent.
Step 3: Conclusion.
From the analysis, both sequences \( (x_n) \) and \( (y_n) \) are convergent. Therefore, the correct answer is (C).