
Step 1: Recall the Definition of Magnetic Moment
The magnetic moment is proportional to the product of pole strength and the effective length of the magnet:
$$ M = m \cdot L $$
Where:
\( M \) = Magnetic moment
\( m \) = Pole strength
\( L \) = Effective length of the magnet
Step 2: Analyze the New Configuration
When the bar is bent at an angle of 60°, the effective length is reduced to half of the original length:
$$ L_{\text{effective}} = \frac{L}{2} $$
Step 3: Calculate the New Magnetic Moment
The new magnetic moment is given by:
$$ M_{\text{new}} = m \cdot L_{\text{effective}} $$
Substituting the value of \( L_{\text{effective}} \):
$$ M_{\text{new}} = m \cdot \frac{L}{2} = \frac{M}{2} $$
Step 4: Conclusion
The new magnetic moment is \( \frac{M}{2} \).
When a bar magnet is bent, its effective length decreases, reducing the magnetic moment.
In a uniform magnetic field of \(0.049 T\), a magnetic needle performs \(20\) complete oscillations in \(5\) seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is \(9.8 \times 10 kg m^2\). If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is \(x \times 10^{-5} Am^2\); then the value of '\(x\)' is

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The potential (V) at any axial point, at 2 m distance(r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector
\(\vec{P}\) of magnitude, 4 × 10-6 C m, is ± 9 × 103 V.
(Take \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}=9\times10^9\) SI units)
Reason R : \(V=±\frac{2P}{4\pi \epsilon_0r^2}\), where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :