Comprehension

Right through history, imperial powers have clung to their possessions to death. Why, then, did Britain in 1947 give up the jewel in its crown, India? For many reasons. The independence struggle exposed the hollowness of the white man’s burden. Provincial self-rule since 1935 paved the way for full self-rule. Churchill resisted independence, but the Labour government of Atlee was anti-imperialist by ideology. Finally, the Royal Indian Navy mutiny in 1946 raised fears of a second Sepoy mutiny, and convinced British waverers that it was safer to withdraw gracefully. But politico-military explanations are not enough. The basis of empire was always money. The end of empire had much to do with the fact that British imperialism had ceased to be profitable. World War II left Britain victorious but deeply indebted, needing Marshall Aid and loans from the World Bank. This constituted a strong financial case for ending the no-longer profitable empire.

Empire building is expensive. The US is spending one billion dollars a day in operations in Iraq that fall well short of full scale imperialism. Through the centuries, empire building was costly, yet constantly undertaken because it promised high returns. The investment was in armies and conquest. The returns came through plunder and taxes from the conquered.

No immorality was attached to imperial loot and plunder. The biggest conquerors were typically revered (hence titles like Alexander the Great, Akbar the Great, and Peter the Great). The bigger and richer the empire, the more the plunderer was admired. This mindset gradually changed with the rise of new ideas about equality and governing for the public good, ideas that culminated in the French and American revolutions.

Robert Clive was impeached for making a little money on the side, and so was Warren Hastings. The white man’s burden came up as a new moral rationale for conquest. It was supposedly for the good of the conquered. This led to much muddled hypocrisy. On the one hand, the empire needed to be profitable. On the other hand, the white man’s burden made brazen loot impossible.

An additional factor deterring loot was the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny. Though crushed, it reminded the British vividly that they were a tiny ethnic group who could not rule a gigantic subcontinent without the support of important locals. After 1857, the British stopped annexing one princely state after another, and instead treated the princes as allies. Land revenue was fixed in absolute terms, partly to prevent local unrest and partly to promote the notion of the white man’s burden. The empire proclaimed itself to be a protector of the Indian peasant against exploitation by Indian elites. This was denounced as hypocrisy by nationalists like Dadabhoy Naoroji in the 19th century, who complained that land taxes led to an enormous drain from India to Britain. Objective calculations by historians like Angus Maddison suggest a drain of perhaps 1.6 percent of Indian Gross National Product in the 19th century. But land revenue was more or less fixed by the Raj in absolute terms, and so its real value diminished rapidly with inflation in the 20th century. By World War II, India had ceased to be a profit center for the British Empire.

Historically, conquered nations paid taxes to finance fresh wars of the conqueror. India itself was asked to pay a large sum at the end of World War I to help repair Britain’s finances. But, as shown by historian Indivar Kamtekar, the independence movement led by Gandhiji changed the political landscape, and made mass taxation of India increasingly difficult. By World War II, this had become politically impossible. Far from taxing India to pay for World War II, Britain actually began paying India for its contribution of men and goods. Troops from white dominions like Australia; Canada and New Zealand were paid for entirely by these countries, but Indian costs were shared by the British government. Britain paid in the form of nonconvertible sterling balances, which mounted swiftly. The conqueror was paying the conquered, undercutting the profitability on which all empire is founded. Churchill opposed this, and wanted to tax India rather than owe it money. But he was overruled by Indian hands who said India would resist payment, and paralyze the war effort. Leo Amery, Secretary of State for India, said that when you are driving in a taxi to the station to catch a life-or-death train, you do not loudly announce that you have doubts whether to pay the fare. Thus, World War II converted India from a debtor to a creditor with over one billion pounds in sterling balances. Britain, meanwhile, became the biggest debtor in the world. It’s not worth ruling over people you are afraid to tax.

Question: 1

Why didn’t Britain tax India to finance its World War II efforts?

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Look at the last paragraph and find who opposed taxing India and what he was warned about. Then see which option repeats that warning.
Updated On: Nov 7, 2026
  • Australia, Canada and New Zealand had offered to pay for Indian troops.
  • India has already paid a sufficiently large sum during World War I.
  • It was afraid that if India refused to pay, Britain’s war efforts would be jeopardized.
  • The British empire was built on the premise that the conqueror pays the conquered.
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks why Britain did not tax India to pay for its World War II efforts.
This is a fact-based question. The reason is stated in the passage, so we only have to find the right lines and read them carefully.
The words to search for are "tax", "World War II" and "India". They all sit together in the last paragraph.

Step 2: Read the relevant lines of the passage:
The last paragraph says that conquered nations were historically taxed to pay for the conqueror's wars. It then says: "Far from taxing India to pay for World War II, Britain actually began paying India for its contribution of men and goods."
Next it says: "Churchill opposed this, and wanted to tax India rather than owe it money. But he was overruled by Indian hands who said India would resist payment, and paralyze the war effort."
Leo Amery then gives a taxi example. If you are racing to the station to catch a train that decides life or death, you do not stop to argue about the fare.
The picture is clear. Britain badly needed Indian men and goods. Taxing India would have made India refuse, and the war effort would have stopped.

Step 3: Check option (1):
This option says Australia, Canada and New Zealand offered to pay for Indian troops.
The passage says something different. Those dominions paid for their own troops. The cost of Indian troops was shared by the British government.
So (1) is FALSE.

Step 4: Check option (2):
This option says India had already paid a large sum during World War I.
The passage does mention a large sum paid by India at the end of World War I. But it never says this was the reason for not taxing India in World War II.
The real reason given is the fear of resistance, not an earlier payment. So (2) is FALSE.

Step 5: Check option (3):
This option says Britain was afraid that if India refused to pay, the war efforts would be jeopardized.
This matches the lines we found. Indian hands warned that India would resist payment and paralyze the war effort, and Churchill was overruled.
So (3) is TRUE.

Step 6: Check option (4):
This option says the British empire was built on the idea that the conqueror pays the conquered.
The passage says the opposite. Empires lived on plunder and taxes taken from the conquered. The conqueror paying the conquered "undercut" the profit of empire, and it happened only because of the war.
So (4) is FALSE.

Final Answer:
Britain did not tax India because it feared that India would refuse to pay and the war effort would be paralyzed. This is option (3). \[ \boxed{\text{Option (3)}} \]
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Question: 2

What was the main lesson the British learned from the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.

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Find the sentence that begins "Though crushed". The lesson is what the British were reminded of, not what they did after 1857.
Updated On: Nov 7, 2026
  • That the local princes were allies, not foes.
  • That the land revenue from India would decline dramatically.
  • That the British were a small ethnic group.
  • That India would be increasingly difficult to rule.
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks for the main lesson the British learned from the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.
A lesson is something the British came to realise because of the event. It is not the same as the steps they took afterwards, so we must separate what they learned from what they did.
The 1857 Mutiny is discussed in the fifth paragraph of the passage.

Step 2: Read the relevant lines of the passage:
The passage says: "Though crushed, it reminded the British vividly that they were a tiny ethnic group who could not rule a gigantic subcontinent without the support of important locals."
Only after this does it describe the actions: "After 1857, the British stopped annexing one princely state after another, and instead treated the princes as allies. Land revenue was fixed in absolute terms."
So the lesson is about the small number of the British and their need for local support. The treatment of princes and the fixed land revenue are what they did after learning it.

Step 3: Check option (1):
This option says the lesson was that local princes were allies, not foes.
The passage says the British treated the princes as allies after 1857. That is a policy change, a result of the lesson. The passage does not say that the British learned that the princes were never foes.
So (1) describes an action and not the lesson. It is wrong.

Step 4: Check option (2):
This option says the lesson was that land revenue would fall dramatically.
The passage talks about land revenue fixed in absolute terms and losing real value because of inflation in the 20th century. This happened long after 1857 and nobody "learned" it from the Mutiny.
So (2) is wrong.

Step 5: Check option (3):
This option says the lesson was that the British were a small ethnic group.
This is the first half of the sentence we found. The Mutiny reminded the British that they were a tiny ethnic group. The second half of the sentence, the need for local support, is built on this fact.
Among the four options this is the only one that repeats what the passage says the British were reminded of. So (3) is the best choice.

Step 6: Check option (4):
This option says the lesson was that India would be increasingly difficult to rule.
The passage connects increasing difficulty of ruling India with a later event, the independence movement led by Gandhiji, which made mass taxation hard. It does not connect this to 1857.
The Mutiny was crushed. What it showed was the weakness of British numbers, not growing ungovernability. So (4) is wrong.

Final Answer:
The passage says the Mutiny reminded the British that they were a tiny ethnic group. This is option (3). \[ \boxed{\text{Option (3)}} \]
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Question: 3

Which of the following was NOT a reason for the emergence of the ‘white man’s burden’ as a new rationale for empire-building in India?

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Trace how the passage moves from new ideas about equality and public good to the white man's burden. One option is not part of this story.
Updated On: Nov 7, 2026
  • The emergence of the idea of the public good as an element of governance.
  • The decreasing returns from imperial loot and increasing costs of conquest.
  • The weakening of the immorality attached to an emperor’s looting behaviour.
  • A growing awareness of the idea of equality among peoples.
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Question:
This is a NOT question. Three options are reasons for the rise of the idea of the white man's burden, and one is not. We must find the odd one out.
So first we need to know how the passage explains the rise of this idea.

Step 2: Build the chain of reasons from the passage:
Paragraph 3 says that in the old days no immorality was attached to loot and plunder. Big conquerors were admired.
Then "new ideas about equality and governing for the public good" came up and ended in the French and American revolutions. The mindset changed.
Paragraph 4 says that after this change the white man's burden came up as a new moral rationale for conquest. It was supposedly for the good of the conquered, and it made brazen loot impossible.
So the chain is: ideas of equality and public good, then a changed attitude to loot, then the new moral rationale.

Step 3: Check option (1):
The emergence of the idea of public good as part of governance is named in paragraph 3 as a new idea behind the change of mindset. So (1) is a reason.

Step 4: Check option (4):
A growing awareness of equality among peoples is also named in paragraph 3 along with the public good. So (4) is a reason.

Step 5: Check option (3):
This option talks about a change in the way looting was judged morally. Paragraph 3 says that this attitude changed, and that is why the white man's burden had to be presented as a moral cause.
The wording "weakening of the immorality" is a little awkward. But it points to the shift in moral attitude towards an emperor's looting, which the passage does treat as a cause. So (3) is taken as a reason.

Step 6: Check option (2):
This option says that returns from loot were decreasing and the cost of conquest was increasing.
The passage never says this about the period when the white man's burden arose. It says empire building was always costly and was still undertaken because it promised high returns.
The profit of the Indian empire fell much later, in the 20th century, after the idea had already been in use. It is not given as a reason for the idea. So (2) is NOT a reason and is the answer.

Final Answer:
Options (1), (3) and (4) are linked in the passage to the rise of the white man's burden. Option (2) is not, so it is the answer. \[ \boxed{\text{Option (2)}} \]
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Question: 4

Which of the following best captures the meaning of the ‘white man’s burden’, as it is used by the author?

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Read the sentence in paragraph 4 that says what the white man's burden was supposed to be for. Do not pick an option that only describes its effect.
Updated On: Nov 7, 2026
  • The British claim to a civilizing mission directed at ensuring the good of the natives.
  • The inspiration for the French and American revolutions.
  • The resource drain that had to be borne by the home country’s white population.
  • An imperative that made open looting of resources impossible.
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The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks what the author means by the white man's burden. This is a meaning-in-context question, so the answer must come from how the phrase is used in the passage and not from outside knowledge.
The phrase appears in the first paragraph and in the fourth and fifth paragraphs. The fourth paragraph is where the author explains it.

Step 2: Read how the author explains the phrase:
The fourth paragraph says: "The white man's burden came up as a new moral rationale for conquest. It was supposedly for the good of the conquered."
The word "supposedly" shows that the author does not fully believe the claim, and calls it "muddled hypocrisy". But the meaning of the phrase is still the claim: the British said they were ruling for the good of the natives.
The fifth paragraph adds that the empire proclaimed itself a protector of the Indian peasant. This is the same claim again.

Step 3: Check option (1):
This option says the phrase means the British claim to a civilizing mission directed at the good of the natives.
This is what the author says in plain words, "for the good of the conquered". So (1) is correct.

Step 4: Check option (2):
This option says it was the inspiration for the French and American revolutions.
The passage says that ideas of equality and public good led to those revolutions. The white man's burden came later, as a result of a changed mindset. So (2) is wrong.

Step 5: Check option (3):
This option reads the word "burden" as a financial drain borne by the white population at home.
The passage uses "burden" for a moral duty that the rulers claimed to carry. The only drain it discusses is the drain of wealth from India to Britain, which is the opposite direction. So (3) is wrong.

Step 6: Check option (4):
This option says it was an imperative that made open looting impossible.
The passage does say the white man's burden "made brazen loot impossible". But that is an effect of the idea. It does not say what the idea means.
This is a tempting trap, because it uses lines from the passage. But it answers a different question. So (4) is wrong.

Final Answer:
In this passage the white man's burden means the claim that the empire existed for the good of the ruled. This is option (1). \[ \boxed{\text{Option (1)}} \]
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Question: 5

Which one of the following best expresses the main purpose of the author?

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Notice the sentence that says the politico-military reasons are not enough. The rest of the passage builds one main argument from there.
Updated On: Nov 7, 2026
  • To present the various reasons that can lead to the collapse of an empire and the granting of independence of the subjects of an empire.
  • To point out the critical role played by the ‘white man’s burden’ in making a colonizing power give up its claims to native possessions.
  • To highlight the contradictory impulse underpinning empire building which is a costly business but very attractive at the same time.
  • To illustrate how erosion of the financial basis of an empire supports the granting of independence to an empire’s constituents.
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The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks for the main purpose of the author. For this we look for the central claim that the whole passage supports, and not for a detail that appears in one paragraph.
A good way is to see how the passage opens, how it turns, and how it ends.

Step 2: Trace the argument of the passage:
The passage opens with a puzzle: why did Britain give up India in 1947 when imperial powers cling to their possessions?
It lists the political reasons and then says they are "not enough". It states that the basis of empire was always money, and that British imperialism had ceased to be profitable.
The next paragraphs show how: loot became morally hard, land revenue was fixed and lost value, India could not be taxed, and Britain became a debtor to India in World War II.
The last line sums it up: "It's not worth ruling over people you are afraid to tax."
So the central claim is that the empire ended because its financial basis eroded.

Step 3: Check option (1):
This option says the purpose is to present the various reasons that lead to the collapse of an empire.
The passage is about one empire, and it plays down the many reasons by calling them not enough. It argues for one main reason. So (1) is too broad and does not fit.

Step 4: Check option (2):
This option says the purpose is to point out the critical role of the white man's burden in making Britain give up its claims.
The white man's burden is one idea in the middle of the passage, and it is discussed as a hypocritical excuse. The first paragraph even says that the struggle exposed its hollowness. It is not the main cause of independence in the author's argument. So (2) is wrong.

Step 5: Check option (3):
This option says the purpose is to highlight the contradictory impulse in empire building, which is costly and attractive at once.
This idea is only in the second paragraph, and it serves as background. It is not what the whole passage is about. So (3) is wrong.

Step 6: Check option (4):
This option says the purpose is to show how the erosion of the financial basis of an empire supports the granting of independence.
It matches the central claim exactly. Falling profit, fixed land revenue, the impossibility of taxing India and the sterling debt all show this erosion.
So (4) is correct.

Final Answer:
The author argues that Britain left India mainly because the financial basis of its empire wore away. This is option (4). \[ \boxed{\text{Option (4)}} \]
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