Question:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation,
\((x^2 + 1)^2\frac{dy}{dx} + 2x(x^2 + 1)y = 1\)
such that \(y(0) = 0\). If \(\sqrt{a}\,y(1) = \frac{\pi}{32}\), then the value of 'a' is :

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Divide by \(x^2 + 1\); the left side becomes the derivative of \((x^2 + 1)y\).
Updated On: Nov 5, 2026
  • \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • \(\frac{1}{16}\)
  • \(1\)
  • \(\frac{1}{4}\)
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Divide by \((x^2 + 1)\): \((x^2 + 1)\frac{dy}{dx} + 2xy = \frac{1}{x^2 + 1}\).
The left side is \(\frac{d}{dx}\left[(x^2 + 1)y\right]\). Integrate: \((x^2 + 1)y = \tan^{-1}x + C\).
\(y(0) = 0 \Rightarrow C = 0\). At \(x = 1\): \(2y(1) = \frac{\pi}{4}\), so \(y(1) = \frac{\pi}{8}\).
\(\sqrt{a}\cdot\frac{\pi}{8} = \frac{\pi}{32} \Rightarrow \sqrt{a} = \frac{1}{4} \Rightarrow a = \frac{1}{16}\).
Answer: (2) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
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