Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A sequence \( (x_n) \) of real numbers is convergent if it has a finite real limit as \( n \to \infty \). Otherwise, the sequence is divergent.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let us analyze the limits of both sequences individually as \( n \to \infty \):
1. Analyzing the sequence \( (a_n) = n^2 \):
We evaluate the limit of \( a_n \) as \( n \) approaches infinity:
\[ \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \lim_{n \to \infty} n^2 = \infty \]
Since the limit is not a finite real number (it grows without bound), the sequence \( (a_n) \) is divergent (specifically, it diverges to infinity).
2. Analyzing the sequence \( (b_n) = 1 + \frac{1{n^2} \):}
We evaluate the limit of \( b_n \) as \( n \) approaches infinity:
\[ \lim_{n \to \infty} b_n = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( 1 + \frac{1}{n^2} \right) \]
Using the sum rule for limits:
\[ \lim_{n \to \infty} b_n = 1 + \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \]
Since \( \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n^2} = 0 \), we have:
\[ \lim_{n \to \infty} b_n = 1 + 0 = 1 \]
Since the limit is a finite real number (equal to 1), the sequence \( (b_n) \) is convergent.
Therefore, \( (a_n) \) is divergent and \( (b_n) \) is convergent.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct statement is ($\text{a}_\text{n}$) is divergent and ($\text{b}_\text{n}$) is convergent.