Question:
In the Tessari technique, what is the ratio of mixing sclerosant to air?
In the Tessari technique, what is the ratio of mixing sclerosant to air?
Show Hint
Tessari technique memory trick: 1 liquid + 4 air = 5 total parts to make a stable Foam.
Always use a three-way stopcock to mix.
Always use a three-way stopcock to mix.
Updated On: Sep 3, 2026
- 1:4
- 4:1
- 1:1
- 1:2
Show Solution
Verified By Collegedunia
The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
Concept:
The question tests the precise technical methodology used during foam sclerotherapy for the treatment of varicose veins.
The clinician must recall the universally standardized ratio for creating a stable sclerosant foam.
Explanation:
• Sclerotherapy involves injecting a chemical irritant (sclerosant) into a diseased vein to cause endothelial damage, thrombosis, and eventual fibrosis of the vessel.
• Using the sclerosant as a foam, rather than a liquid, is highly advantageous because the foam displaces blood inside the vein, allowing for maximum, undiluted contact between the chemical and the venous endothelium.
• The Tessari technique is the gold standard method for generating this microfoam.
• It utilizes two syringes connected by a three-way stopcock.
• The universally accepted and proven formula to create the most stable, effective foam with optimal bubble size is mixing 1 part of liquid sclerosant (such as Sodium Tetradecyl Sulfate or Polidocanol) with 4 parts of air (or physiological gas like CO2/O2).
• By vigorously pumping the mixture back and forth between the syringes at this exact 1:4 ratio, a dense, shaving-cream-like microfoam is produced.
• Ratios like 1:1 or 1:2 create a runny, unstable mixture that degrades back to liquid too rapidly in the bloodstream.
Final Answer:
The standard ratio used in the Tessari technique for creating sclerosant foam is 1 part sclerosant to 4 parts air.
The question tests the precise technical methodology used during foam sclerotherapy for the treatment of varicose veins.
The clinician must recall the universally standardized ratio for creating a stable sclerosant foam.
Explanation:
• Sclerotherapy involves injecting a chemical irritant (sclerosant) into a diseased vein to cause endothelial damage, thrombosis, and eventual fibrosis of the vessel.
• Using the sclerosant as a foam, rather than a liquid, is highly advantageous because the foam displaces blood inside the vein, allowing for maximum, undiluted contact between the chemical and the venous endothelium.
• The Tessari technique is the gold standard method for generating this microfoam.
• It utilizes two syringes connected by a three-way stopcock.
• The universally accepted and proven formula to create the most stable, effective foam with optimal bubble size is mixing 1 part of liquid sclerosant (such as Sodium Tetradecyl Sulfate or Polidocanol) with 4 parts of air (or physiological gas like CO2/O2).
• By vigorously pumping the mixture back and forth between the syringes at this exact 1:4 ratio, a dense, shaving-cream-like microfoam is produced.
• Ratios like 1:1 or 1:2 create a runny, unstable mixture that degrades back to liquid too rapidly in the bloodstream.
Final Answer:
The standard ratio used in the Tessari technique for creating sclerosant foam is 1 part sclerosant to 4 parts air.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Top NEET SS Surgical Questions
- A post-mastectomy patient (for malignant breast lump) who also had axillary lymph node dissection now presents in the postoperative period (after drain removal) with a soft, fluctuant swelling in the axilla extending into the mastectomy site.
- A patient presents with a large, multilobulated breast tumour clinically suggestive of phyllodes tumour, and there is a significant family history of breast cancer (grandmother) and prostate cancer (father). What is the next step in management?
- In a young woman with a breast lump confirmed on ultrasound to be a simple cyst, what is the next step in management?
- A 45-year-old woman underwent investigations for a breast lump. Her biopsy report confirms invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. You are the surgical resident in charge and need to communicate the diagnosis to her. What is the most appropriate approach?
- A 35-year-old woman, a chronic smoker, presents with recurrent painful periareolar swelling and purulent nipple discharge for the past 6 months. She has undergone incision and drainage twice, but the symptoms recur after a short period. Which of the following statements about the most likely diagnosis is true?
View More Questions
Top NEET SS Endovascular Surgery Questions
- What is the most common complication of standard varicose vein surgery (e.g., ligation & stripping)?
- In a standard 4-layer bandage (4LB) system, which layer exerts the maximum pressure on the leg?
- Most appropriate next treatment in this patient?
- A patient presents with thigh and calf pain and is able to walk a claudication distance of 500 meters. No palpable pulses are present in the affected limb, but pulses in the opposite limb are normal. Where is the disease most likely located?
- Pseudoclaudication is most commonly caused by:
View More Questions
Top NEET SS Questions
- A liver transplant patient presents with diarrhoea, colitis, a total leukocyte count of 1800, and a positive blood CMV PCR. What is the next step in management?
- A 32-year-old male recovering from dengue fever initially showed clinical improvement but now presents with recurrence of high-grade fever, fatigue, and pancytopenia on day 10 of illness. He is hemodynamically stable with no bleeding manifestations. Which of the following investigations should be performed first to evaluate the cause of relapse and cytopenia?
- A 48-year-old man with chronic hepatitis C infection is being evaluated for risk factors associated with progression of liver disease. He has a 20-year history of infection, drinks alcohol occasionally, and has a high serum HCV RNA viral load. Which of the following factors is not associated with an increased risk of progression of liver disease in chronic HCV infection?
- A 28-year-old veterinary worker who previously received a full 3-dose pre-exposure rabies vaccination series is bitten by a stray dog while handling an animal in the clinic. The wound is cleaned immediately. What is the most appropriate post-exposure management?
- A 42-year-old patient undergoing chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia develops neutropenia (ANC $<$ 500) and is treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. After initial recovery of neutrophil counts (ANC = 1500), he again develops high-grade fever and right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Imaging shows multiple small hypodense lesions in the liver and spleen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
View More Questions