Question:

A patient presents with a large, multilobulated breast tumour clinically suggestive of phyllodes tumour, and there is a significant family history of breast cancer (grandmother) and prostate cancer (father). What is the next step in management?

Show Hint

Routine axillary dissection or sentinel lymph node biopsy is strictly NOT indicated for Phyllodes tumors unless axillary nodes are clinically palpable, highly suspicious on imaging, and cytologically proven by FNAC to harbor metastatic disease.
Updated On: Sep 3, 2026
  • Simple mastectomy
  • Wide local excision
  • MRM
  • Mastectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is A

Solution and Explanation

Concept:
A patient presents with a clinically evident, large, multilobulated breast mass characteristic of a Phyllodes tumor, compounded by a very strong family history of breast and prostate cancer, which highly raises the suspicion for an underlying genetic predisposition syndrome, most likely a BRCA1 or BRCA2 germline mutation.
The task is to determine the most appropriate surgical intervention that adequately treats the primary massive tumor while simultaneously addressing the patient's likely high inherent risk for future breast malignancies.
Explanation:
• Phyllodes tumors are relatively rare fibroepithelial tumors of the breast that exhibit a wide biological spectrum, ranging from completely benign, to borderline, to overtly malignant sarcomatous variants.

• The paramount surgical principle for treating any Phyllodes tumor, regardless of its grade, is achieving complete surgical excision with clear, negative margins (typically a minimum of a $1 \text{ cm}$ gross margin) to minimize the notoriously high risk of local recurrence.

• If a Phyllodes tumor is small relative to the overall size of the breast, a Wide Local Excision (WLE) or lumpectomy is the treatment of choice, as it achieves clear margins while preserving acceptable cosmetic appearance.

• However, for large, massive, or heavily multilobulated tumors where achieving a $1 \text{ cm}$ margin would effectively remove the majority of the breast tissue and result in severe cosmetic deformity, a Simple Mastectomy becomes the indicated surgical approach.

• Furthermore, this specific clinical scenario highlights a significant family history of breast and prostate cancer. This strongly points towards a hereditary cancer syndrome (e.g., BRCA mutation). Patients with such high-risk genetic profiles often benefit from risk-reducing mastectomies rather than breast conservation, as their lifetime risk of developing an entirely new primary breast cancer is profoundly elevated.

• The combination of a physically massive tumor that precludes breast conservation and a high baseline genetic risk of future ipsilateral or contralateral malignancies makes a Simple Mastectomy the most prudent, comprehensive, and definitive surgical step.

• Modified Radical Mastectomy (MRM) and Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy (SLNB) are explicitly not indicated because Phyllodes tumors, even when malignant, spread almost exclusively via hematogenous routes (like true sarcomas) rather than through the lymphatic system; axillary lymph node involvement is exceedingly rare (less than $1\%$).
Final Answer:
A simple mastectomy is the treatment of choice as it safely removes the large multilobulated tumor with adequate negative margins while simultaneously managing the patient's elevated genetic risk for future breast malignancies.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0

Top NEET SS Questions

View More Questions