Question:

If \(X\) is a random variable with probability density function \[ f(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{12\pi}}\,e^{-\frac{(x-1)^2}{12}}, \qquad 0<x<\infty, \] then the value of \[ \int_{1}^{\infty} f(x)\,dx \] is:

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For a normal distribution, the mean divides the area into two equal halves.
Thus, \(P(X \ge \mu) = 0.5\).
  • 0
  • \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • \(1 - \frac{1}{2}\)
  • 1
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The given pdf is a normal distribution with mean \(\mu = 1\) and variance \(\sigma^2 = 6\) (since \(\sigma^2 = 6\) because \(2\sigma^2 = 12\)).
The total area under the pdf is 1.

Step 2: Key Approach:

The integral \(\int_{1}^{\infty} f(x) dx\) represents the probability that \(X \ge 1\).
Since the distribution is symmetric about its mean 1, the area to the right of the mean is 0.5.

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The normal distribution is symmetric about its mean \(\mu = 1\).
Therefore, the probability that \(X \ge 1\) is exactly 0.5.
Thus, \(\int_{1}^{\infty} f(x) dx = 0.5 = \frac{1}{2}\).
Option (B) is \(\frac{1}{2}\).
Option (C) is \(1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}\) as well, but it's written as \(1 - \frac{1}{2}\).
Option (B) is more direct.
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