Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The given pdf is a normal distribution with mean \(\mu = 1\) and variance \(\sigma^2 = 6\) (since \(\sigma^2 = 6\) because \(2\sigma^2 = 12\)).
The total area under the pdf is 1.
Step 2: Key Approach:
The integral \(\int_{1}^{\infty} f(x) dx\) represents the probability that \(X \ge 1\).
Since the distribution is symmetric about its mean 1, the area to the right of the mean is 0.5.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The normal distribution is symmetric about its mean \(\mu = 1\).
Therefore, the probability that \(X \ge 1\) is exactly 0.5.
Thus, \(\int_{1}^{\infty} f(x) dx = 0.5 = \frac{1}{2}\).
Option (B) is \(\frac{1}{2}\).
Option (C) is \(1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}\) as well, but it's written as \(1 - \frac{1}{2}\).
Option (B) is more direct.