Question:

If \(q\) is false and \(p \wedge q \leftrightarrow r\) is true, then which one of the following statements is a tautology ?

Show Hint

A tautology is true for every truth value of its variables. \((p \wedge r) \rightarrow (p \vee r)\) can never be false since \(p \wedge r\) true forces \(p \vee r\) true.
Updated On: Nov 5, 2026
  • \(p \wedge r\)
  • \((p \vee r) \rightarrow (p \wedge r)\)
  • \(p \vee r\)
  • \((p \wedge r) \rightarrow (p \vee r)\)
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The Correct Option is D

Solution and Explanation

Since \(q\) is false, \(p \wedge q\) is false. As \((p \wedge q) \leftrightarrow r\) is true, \(r\) must be false.
Now test each option with \(r = F\):
(1) \(p \wedge r = F\) for every \(p\): not a tautology.
(2) \((p \vee r) \rightarrow (p \wedge r)\) becomes \(p \rightarrow F\), which is false when \(p = T\): not a tautology.
(3) \(p \vee r = p\): not always true.
(4) \((p \wedge r) \rightarrow (p \vee r)\): the antecedent \(p \wedge r\) is false, so the implication is true for both values of \(p\); in fact it is true for all \(p, r\) because \(p \wedge r\) implies \(p \vee r\). It is a tautology.
Answer: (4) \((p \wedge r) \rightarrow (p \vee r)\)
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