Step 1: Concept
A sequence $\langle x_n \rangle$ is convergent if $\lim_{n \to \infty} x_n = L$ for some finite $L \in \mathbb{R}$.
Every convergent sequence is bounded, but boundedness alone is not sufficient to guarantee convergence (e.g., $y_n = (-1)^n$ is bounded but divergent).
Step 2: Key Formulas and Approach
1. Evaluate $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sin(1/n)$ using continuity of $\sin x$.
2. Check if $|x_n| \leq M$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
3. Determine whether Reason R is a sufficient logical explanation for Assertion A.
Step 3: Step-by-step Explanation
• Evaluating Assertion A:
As $n \to \infty$, $1/n \to 0$. By continuity of the sine function:
\[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) = \sin\left(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}\right) = \sin(0) = 0 \]
Since the limit exists and is finite, the sequence converges to $0$.
Hence, Assertion A is true.
• Evaluating Reason R:
For all $n \geq 1$, $|\sin(1/n)| \leq 1$. Thus, the sequence $\langle x_n \rangle$ is bounded.
Hence, Reason R is true.
• Evaluating Logical Explanation:
Boundedness does not guarantee convergence of a sequence. To guarantee convergence, a sequence must be both bounded and monotonic (Monotone Convergence Theorem).
Therefore, Reason R is a true statement, but NOT the correct explanation of Assertion A.
Step 4: Final Answer
Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. Thus, Option (B) is correct.