Step 1: For \(X\sim \text{Bin}(n,p)\), \(\mathrm{E}(X)=np\) and \(\mathrm{Var}(X)=np(1-p)=\mathrm{E}(X)\,(1-p)\). Hence \(\mathrm{Var}(X)\le \mathrm{E}(X)\).
Step 2: Option (C) violates this since \(15>10\). Thus it cannot be true.
Step 3: The others are feasible by taking \(p=0.2,0.1,0.8\) respectively with suitable integer \(n\).
Therefore, (C) is the only impossible pair.