Question:
A child was involved in an RTA. Below the CT image is given., What is the diagnosis?
A child was involved in an RTA. Below the CT image is given., What is the diagnosis?
Show Hint
EDH vs SDH on Head CT:
$\bullet$ EDH = Biconvex Lenticular shape | Middle meningeal artery | Does NOT cross suture lines.
$\bullet$ SDH = Crescent shape | Bridging cortical veins | CROSSES suture lines.
$\bullet$ EDH = Biconvex Lenticular shape | Middle meningeal artery | Does NOT cross suture lines.
$\bullet$ SDH = Crescent shape | Bridging cortical veins | CROSSES suture lines.
Updated On: Sep 3, 2026
- EDH
- SDH
- Parenchymal Haemorrhage.
- Hematoma
Show Solution
Verified By Collegedunia
The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
Concept:
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) from road traffic accidents (RTA) in children commonly results in extra-axial intracranial hemorrhages.
Non-contrast head CT is the gold standard imaging modality for distinguishing epidural hematoma (EDH) from subdural hematoma (SDH) and intraparenchymal contusions.
Explanation:
• Epidural Hematoma (EDH):
- Results from arterial bleeding, most classically rupture of the middle meningeal artery associated with a temporal/parietal bone fracture.
- Appears on CT as a classic well-defined, hyperdense, biconvex (lenticular) collection.
- The hematoma is confined by the tight adherence of the dura mater to the cranial sutures, so it does not cross cranial suture lines (but can cross the falx/tentorium).
• Subdural Hematoma (SDH):
- Results from tearing of bridging cortical veins.
- Appears as a crescent-shaped (concavo-convex) hyperdense collection that crosses cranial sutures along the hemisphere, limited only by dural reflections (falx cerebri).
• Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage:
- Appears as hyperdense hemorrhagic foci within the brain parenchyma itself, typically associated with surrounding edema.
Final Answer:
The classic biconvex, lenticular hyperdense lesion limited by cranial sutures on head CT following trauma is diagnostic of an Epidural Hematoma (EDH).
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) from road traffic accidents (RTA) in children commonly results in extra-axial intracranial hemorrhages.
Non-contrast head CT is the gold standard imaging modality for distinguishing epidural hematoma (EDH) from subdural hematoma (SDH) and intraparenchymal contusions.
Explanation:
• Epidural Hematoma (EDH):
- Results from arterial bleeding, most classically rupture of the middle meningeal artery associated with a temporal/parietal bone fracture.
- Appears on CT as a classic well-defined, hyperdense, biconvex (lenticular) collection.
- The hematoma is confined by the tight adherence of the dura mater to the cranial sutures, so it does not cross cranial suture lines (but can cross the falx/tentorium).
• Subdural Hematoma (SDH):
- Results from tearing of bridging cortical veins.
- Appears as a crescent-shaped (concavo-convex) hyperdense collection that crosses cranial sutures along the hemisphere, limited only by dural reflections (falx cerebri).
• Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage:
- Appears as hyperdense hemorrhagic foci within the brain parenchyma itself, typically associated with surrounding edema.
Final Answer:
The classic biconvex, lenticular hyperdense lesion limited by cranial sutures on head CT following trauma is diagnostic of an Epidural Hematoma (EDH).
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Top NEET SS Paediatrics Questions
- A 2-year-old child presents with persistent fever for 4 days. Examination shows conjunctival injection and periungual desquamation, but criteria for complete Kawasaki disease are not met. You plan to evaluate for incomplete Kawasaki disease as per AHA guidelines. Which of the following investigations is NOT routinely recommended in this evaluation?
- A 27-year-old pregnant woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is concerned about the risk of congenital heart block in her fetus due to anti-Ro/SSA antibodies. Which of the following medications is not recommended antenatally to prevent cardiac manifestations of neonatal lupus?
- A 2-week-old infant presents with a photosensitive annular erythematous rash on the face. ECG reveals complete heart block. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
- A 10-year-old child presents with arthritis involving the wrist and first MCP joint. Examination shows nail pitting. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A 14-year-old girl with SLE presents with edema and nephrotic-range proteinuria. Renal biopsy shows diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane without proliferative lesions. This corresponds to which class of lupus nephritis?
View More Questions
Top NEET SS Pediatric Emergency - Status Asthmaticus Management Questions
Top NEET SS Questions
- A liver transplant patient presents with diarrhoea, colitis, a total leukocyte count of 1800, and a positive blood CMV PCR. What is the next step in management?
- A 32-year-old male recovering from dengue fever initially showed clinical improvement but now presents with recurrence of high-grade fever, fatigue, and pancytopenia on day 10 of illness. He is hemodynamically stable with no bleeding manifestations. Which of the following investigations should be performed first to evaluate the cause of relapse and cytopenia?
- A 48-year-old man with chronic hepatitis C infection is being evaluated for risk factors associated with progression of liver disease. He has a 20-year history of infection, drinks alcohol occasionally, and has a high serum HCV RNA viral load. Which of the following factors is not associated with an increased risk of progression of liver disease in chronic HCV infection?
- A 28-year-old veterinary worker who previously received a full 3-dose pre-exposure rabies vaccination series is bitten by a stray dog while handling an animal in the clinic. The wound is cleaned immediately. What is the most appropriate post-exposure management?
- A 42-year-old patient undergoing chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia develops neutropenia (ANC $<$ 500) and is treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. After initial recovery of neutrophil counts (ANC = 1500), he again develops high-grade fever and right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Imaging shows multiple small hypodense lesions in the liver and spleen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
View More Questions