Question:

Which of the following is true about MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) resistance?

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Think mecA and PBP2a, a changed target rather than an enzyme.
Updated On: Jun 24, 2026
  • It is due to production of penicillinase
  • It is due to alteration in penicillin binding proteins
  • It is plasmid mediated
  • It is treated with amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
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The Correct Option is B

Solution and Explanation

Step 1: Recall the mechanism of MRSA resistance. MRSA carries the mecA gene, which encodes an altered penicillin binding protein, PBP2a.
Step 2: PBP2a has very low affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics, so methicillin and other penicillins cannot bind and inhibit cell wall synthesis. This is the basis of resistance, confirming option B.
Step 3: Eliminate the wrong options. Penicillinase (beta-lactamase) production causes resistance to ordinary penicillin but is overcome by methicillin and by beta-lactamase inhibitors; it is not the MRSA mechanism. The mecA gene is chromosomal (carried on the SCCmec element), not plasmid mediated.
Step 4: Because resistance is due to an altered target rather than enzyme degradation, adding clavulanic acid (a beta-lactamase inhibitor) to amoxicillin does not work against MRSA.
Step 5: The correct statement is alteration in penicillin binding proteins, option B.
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