Comprehension
The modern animal rights movement, which originated in the 1970s, may be understood as a reaction to dominant emphases within science and religion (principally, though not exclusively, Christianity). When the Jesuit Joseph Rickaby wrote in 1888 that "Brute beasts, not having understanding and therefore not being persons, cannot have any rights" and that we have "no duties of charity or duties of any kind to the lower animals as neither to stocks and stones", he was only articulating, albeit in an extreme form, the moral insensitivity that has characterized the Western view of animals.
That insensitivity is the result of an amalgam of influences. The first, and for many years the most dominant, was the "other worldly" or "world denying" tendency in Christianity, which has, at its worst, denigrated the value of earthly things in comparison with things spiritual. Traditional Catholicism has divided the world into those beings that possess reason and therefore immortal souls, and those that do not. Christian spirituality has not consciously been at home with the world of non-human creatures-either animal or vegetable. Classic accounts of eternal life as found in Augustine of Hippo, Thomas Aquinas, or John Calvin make little or no reference to the world of animals. Animals, it seems, are merely transient or peripheral beings in an otherwise wholly human-centric economy of salvation.
The second idea-common to Christianity, Judaism, and Islam-is that animals, along with vegetables and minerals, exist instrumentally in relation to human beings; they are made for human beings, even belong to human beings, as resources in creation. This idea predates Christianity and is found notably in Aristotle, who argues that "since nature makes nothing to no purpose, it must be that nature has made them for the sake of man". This idea, largely unsupported by scripture, was nevertheless taken over by Aquinas, who conceived of creation as a rational hierarchy in which the intellectually inferior existed for the sake of the intellectually superior.
Such instrumentalism, which features rationality as the key factor dividing human beings from "brute beasts," has in turn buttressed the third influence, namely the notion of human superiority in creation. Human superiority need not, by itself, have led to the neglect of animal life, but when combined with the biblical ideas of being made "in the image of God" and God's preferential choice to become incarnate in human form, some sense of moral as well as theological ascendancy was indicated. As a result, Christianity, and to a lesser extent Judaism, have been characterized historically by an overwhelming concern for humanity in creation rather than an egalitarian concern for all forms of God-given life. That humans are more important than animals, and that they self-evidently merit moral solicitude in a way that animals cannot, has become religious doctrine. Thus the Catechism of the Catholic Church maintains that "it is ….. unworthy to spend money on them [animals] that should as a priority go to the relief of human misery".
These influences have in turn enabled and justified the scientific exploration of the natural world and specifically the subjection of animals to experimentation. Francis Bacon pursued his scientific investigations in the belief that humanity should "recover that right over nature which belongs to it by divine bequest". René Descartes famously likened the movements of a swallow to the workings of a clock, and maintained that "There is no prejudice to which we are more accustomed from our earliest years than the belief that dumb animals think”.
Question: 1

Jesuit Joseph rickaby’s articulation on animals may be termed as:

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • Eco-centric view of animals
  • Anthropocentric view of animals
  • Ethnocentric view of animals
  • Androcentric view of animals
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The Correct Option is B

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The correct option is (B): Anthropocentric view of animals.
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This question asks us to categorise the worldview behind Rickaby's 1888 statement that "brute beasts... cannot have any rights" and that we owe animals no duties "as neither to stocks and stones." We need to match this view against the definition of each "-centric" term.

  1. Eco-centric: An eco-centric view places ecosystems and nature as a whole, including non-human life, at the centre of moral concern, treating humans as just one part of a larger natural system. Rickaby's statement does the opposite, it denies animals any moral standing at all, so this label does not fit.
  2. Anthropocentric: An anthropocentric view places humans (from the Greek "anthropos," meaning human) at the centre of moral and philosophical consideration, treating non-human beings as having value only in relation to humans, or none at all. Rickaby's claim that beasts, lacking "understanding" and therefore not being "persons," can have no rights, and that we owe them no duties "of any kind," is a textbook expression of putting humans at the centre and excluding animals from moral concern entirely.
  3. Ethnocentric: An ethnocentric view judges other cultures or groups by the standards of one's own culture or ethnicity, a concept about human groups judging other human groups. Rickaby's statement is about animals versus humans, not about one human culture versus another, so this term does not apply.
  4. Androcentric: An androcentric view centres specifically on men (as opposed to women) as the norm or standard. Rickaby's statement makes no distinction between men and women; it is about humans as a species versus animals, so this term is also a mismatch.

Rickaby's denial of any rights or duties to animals, on the grounds that only "persons" (humans) merit moral consideration, is precisely what it means for a view to be centred on humans above all else.

Therefore, the correct answer is Anthropocentric view of animals.

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Question: 2

According to the author, how did Christianity contribute to insensitivity of the West towards animals?

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • It denigrated the value of earthly things in comparison with spiritual things.
  • It divided the world into beings with and without reason.
  • It propagated as if animals are transient or peripheral in human centric economy of salvation.
  • All the above.
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The Correct Option is D

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The correct option is (D): All the above.
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Approach Solution -2

This question asks how Christianity specifically is said to have contributed to the West's insensitivity toward animals. Since the last option combines the first three, we should check whether the passage actually attributes all three to Christianity or whether some belong elsewhere.

  1. Option A (Denigrated earthly things compared to spiritual things): The passage explicitly names the "other-worldly" or "world-denying" tendency in Christianity as valuing spiritual matters over earthly ones "at its worst," which is stated as the first and historically most dominant influence.
  2. Option B (Divided the world into beings with and without reason): The passage describes traditional Catholicism as dividing the world into beings that possess reason (and therefore immortal souls) and those that do not, directly tying this division to Christian doctrine.
  3. Option C (Propagated animals as transient/peripheral in a human-centric economy of salvation): The passage states that classic Christian accounts of eternal life (Augustine, Aquinas, Calvin) make little or no reference to animals, treating them as merely "transient or peripheral beings in an otherwise wholly human-centric economy of salvation," which is explicitly attributed to Christian theology.
  4. Option D (All the above): Since the passage presents all three ideas, the earthly/spiritual divide, the reason-based division of beings, and the human-centric view of salvation, as connected parts of the SAME Christian "other-worldly" tendency described in its second paragraph, they are not separate or competing explanations but three faces of one influence.

Each of the three statements is drawn from the same discussion of Christianity's "other-worldly" character in the passage, so no single one covers the full explanation on its own.

Therefore, the correct answer is All the above.

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Question: 3

Which of the following is closest to the meaning of the word ‘instrumentalism’ as used in the passage?

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • Pragmatism
  • Idealism
  • Egalitarianism
  • None of the above
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The Correct Option is A

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The correct option is (A): Pragmatism.
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This is a vocabulary-in-context question about the word "instrumentalism" as used in the passage, where it describes the idea that animals, plants, and minerals "exist instrumentally in relation to human beings... as resources in creation," valued only for their use or function rather than for their own sake.

  1. Option A (Pragmatism): Pragmatism, broadly, judges things by their practical usefulness or function rather than by intrinsic or abstract value. "Instrumentalism," which treats animals purely as tools or resources useful to humans, is essentially a pragmatic way of valuing things, by what they are useful FOR, which is the same practical, use-based logic.
  2. Option B (Idealism): Idealism, in the philosophical sense, holds that reality or value is fundamentally grounded in ideas, minds, or ideals, often the OPPOSITE of judging things by mere practical use. Instrumentalism's use-based logic does not match this at all.
  3. Option C (Egalitarianism): Egalitarianism is the view that all beings or people deserve equal worth or treatment, which is essentially the opposite of instrumentalism's hierarchy where humans matter and other beings exist merely to serve them.
  4. Option D (None of the above): Since "pragmatism" closely matches the use-based, functional logic that defines "instrumentalism" in the passage, there's no need to fall back on this option.

The passage's use of "instrumentalism," valuing beings only for their usefulness to humans, mirrors the practical, function-first logic that "pragmatism" describes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Pragmatism.

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Question: 4

Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • Western philosophy and science are both under the influence of religion.
  • Western philosophical views on animals have been influenced by religious notions about them.
  • Western religious notions on animals have justified subjection of animals to scientific experimentation.
  • Some of the scientific views on animals have been influenced by religious notions about them.
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The Correct Option is A

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The correct option is (A): Western philosophy and science are both under the influence of religion.
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This is a "NOT true" question, so we need to find the one statement that the passage does NOT support, while confirming the other three are each backed by specific details in the passage.

  1. Option A (Western philosophy and science are both under the influence of religion): This is a sweeping, general claim that ALL of Western philosophy and science sit under religious influence. The passage's own Aristotle example works against this: Aristotle's idea that nature made things "for the sake of man" is explicitly said to PREDATE Christianity and to have been "largely unsupported by scripture" before it was later taken over by Aquinas. That is, in this very passage, a philosophical idea existed independently of, and prior to, religious doctrine, it was religion that absorbed a philosophical idea, not simply philosophy sitting "under the influence of" religion throughout. The passage supports specific overlaps in particular places, not a blanket claim that both fields are generally religion-driven.
  2. Option B (Western philosophical views on animals influenced by religious notions): This is supported in a narrower, more specific way, Aquinas's rational hierarchy, ranking the "intellectually inferior" beneath the "intellectually superior," is explicitly shown merging Aristotle's idea INTO a Christian theological framework, so this particular philosophical view on animals was indeed shaped through religious doctrine.
  3. Option C (Western religious notions justified subjection of animals to scientific experimentation): This is directly and explicitly stated: the passage says these religious/philosophical influences "have in turn enabled and justified the scientific exploration of the natural world and specifically the subjection of animals to experimentation," naming Bacon and Descartes as examples.
  4. Option D (Some scientific views on animals influenced by religious notions): This is also directly supported, Francis Bacon's belief that humanity should "recover that right over nature which belongs to it by divine bequest" explicitly frames a scientific pursuit in religious terms ("divine bequest").

Options B, C, and D each match specific, narrow details the passage actually states, while option A makes an unsupported, overly general claim that the passage's own Aristotle example actually contradicts.

Therefore, the correct answer (the statement that is NOT true) is Western philosophy and science are both under the influence of religion.

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Question: 5

It may be inferred from 'Rene Descartes’ view that

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • It as irrational to assume that animals have awareness and some mental capacities.
  • Animals are automata or they act mechanically.
  • Neither (A) nor (B)
  • Both (A) and (B)
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The Correct Option is D

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The correct option is (D): Both (A) and (B).
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This question asks what can be inferred from Descartes's view as given in the passage, that he "likened the movements of a swallow to the workings of a clock" and held that "There is no prejudice to which we are more accustomed from our earliest years than the belief that dumb animals think."

  1. Option A (It is irrational to assume that animals have awareness and some mental capacities): Descartes explicitly calls the belief that "dumb animals think" a "prejudice," a term that implies an unfounded, irrational bias rather than a reasoned conclusion. Calling the belief in animal thought a mere prejudice directly implies that Descartes considered it irrational to assume animals possess awareness or thought.
  2. Option B (Animals are automata or they act mechanically): Descartes's comparison of a swallow's movements to "the workings of a clock" is a direct mechanical analogy, treating an animal's behaviour as governed by mechanism rather than mind, which is precisely the claim that animals are automata acting mechanically.
  3. Option C (Neither A nor B): Since the passage provides direct textual support for both A (dismissing animal thought as prejudice) and B (the clockwork analogy), it is inaccurate to say neither can be inferred.
  4. Option D (Both A and B): The clock analogy and the "prejudice" remark work together as two expressions of the same underlying Cartesian position, animals lack minds and operate mechanically, so both statements can be drawn from the same passage evidence at once.

Descartes's clockwork comparison and his dismissal of animal thought as prejudice are two sides of the same view, that animals are mindless, mechanically operating beings, so both inferences hold simultaneously rather than one excluding the other.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both (A) and (B).

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