This question asks for the acceleration of a body sliding down a frictionless inclined surface, in terms of the angle of incline \( \theta \) and gravitational acceleration \( g \). Instead of resolving forces again, we can check each option against two limiting cases we already know from experience: a completely vertical surface (\( \theta = 90^\circ \), which is just free fall) and a completely flat surface (\( \theta = 0^\circ \), where nothing slides at all).
- \( g\sin\theta \): At \( \theta = 90^\circ \), \( \sin 90^\circ = 1 \), so this gives \( a = g \), exactly matching free fall along a vertical wall. At \( \theta = 0^\circ \), \( \sin 0^\circ = 0 \), so \( a = 0 \), matching a flat, horizontal surface where nothing accelerates. Both limiting cases check out.
- \( g\cos\theta \): At \( \theta = 90^\circ \), \( \cos 90^\circ = 0 \), which would mean a body falling down a vertical surface has zero acceleration. That contradicts free fall, so this expression cannot be right.
- \( g\tan\theta \): At \( \theta = 90^\circ \), \( \tan\theta \) grows without bound, implying an infinite acceleration on a vertical surface. Since acceleration on any incline can never exceed \( g \) (free fall is the fastest a body can accelerate under gravity alone), this expression is physically impossible.
- None of these: Since one of the listed expressions already survives both limiting-case checks, this option is ruled out.
Only \( g\sin\theta \) behaves correctly in both limiting situations, confirming it as the acceleration of the body on the incline.
Therefore, the correct answer is \( g\sin\theta \).