Question:

Principle: Inducing any animal to move or to change its motion and thereby intentionally causing fear of injury or annoyance to others by such act, is an offence of use of criminal force.
Facts: X incites his dog to chase and run after his neighbour Y, to teach Y to stay away from him. The act is done without neighbour's consent and against his will.

Show Hint

Actions that cause fear or annoyance, even without physical harm, are considered criminal force if done without consent.
Updated On: Jul 15, 2026
  • X has committed no offence
  • X has committed no offence because no harm is caused to Y
  • X has committed no offence because he intended only to put fear in the mind of Y
  • X has committed an offence of use of criminal force
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

The Correct Option is D

Approach Solution - 1

According to the principle, any act involving the use of an animal to cause fear or annoyance is considered an offence under criminal law. Here, X incited his dog to chase and run after Y, even though no physical harm was caused. The principle does not require the act to result in physical injury; causing fear or annoyance through such an act is sufficient to constitute criminal force. Therefore, even though Y was not physically hurt, X's use of the dog to create fear is a violation under criminal law, and X has committed an offence of criminal force.
Option (A) is incorrect because X’s act of inciting the dog caused fear to Y, which is a criminal act. Option (B) is incorrect because the absence of physical harm does not negate the offence of criminal force. Option (C) is incorrect because the act of instilling fear is sufficient to be considered criminal force, even if the intention was to only cause fear and not physical harm.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -2

This question checks whether setting a dog on someone counts as criminal force even when the dog does not actually catch or bite them. Let's review the options.

  1. X has committed no offence: The principle covers inducing an animal to move in a way that intentionally causes fear of injury or annoyance to another person, which is exactly what X did by setting his dog on Y. There is no basis in the facts for saying no offence occurred.
  2. X has committed no offence, because no harm is caused to Y: The principle does not require actual physical harm; it is satisfied by causing fear of injury or annoyance through the animal's movement. Y being chased and frightened by the dog fits this even if Y was never bitten or hurt.
  3. X has committed no offence, because he intended only to put fear in Y's mind: Intending to cause fear is not a defence here; it is the very conduct the principle punishes. Wanting to scare Y into staying away is itself the intentional causing of fear the principle describes.
  4. X has committed an offence of use of criminal force: X deliberately incited his dog to chase Y without Y's consent and against his will, meaning to make Y fearful enough to stay away. That is precisely inducing an animal to move in order to intentionally cause fear of injury or annoyance, which the principle treats as criminal force.

Since X intentionally set the dog on Y to frighten him, without Y's consent, the act matches the principle's description of criminal force through an animal, regardless of whether Y suffered any physical injury.

So the correct answer is X has committed an offence of use of criminal force.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Show Solution
collegedunia
Verified By Collegedunia

Approach Solution -3

Each wrong option here assumes the offence needs something more than what the principle actually states, either physical harm or the absence of any intent to frighten. Testing those assumptions against the principle's own wording resolves the question.

  1. No offence at all: This assumes some missing element in the offence, but every element the principle requires, inducing an animal to move so as to intentionally cause fear of injury or annoyance, is present in X setting his dog on Y.
  2. No offence, since no harm is caused: This assumes actual physical harm is required, but the principle is satisfied by causing fear of injury or annoyance through the animal's movement, which the chase plainly did regardless of whether Y was ever caught or bitten.
  3. No offence, since he only intended to cause fear: This assumes intending fear is somehow a defence, but causing that fear intentionally is precisely the conduct the principle punishes, not an excuse from it.
  4. Offence of use of criminal force: This assumes nothing extra; it applies the principle exactly as worded, X deliberately induced his dog to chase Y, without consent, meaning to frighten him into staying away.

Since the principle needs only intentional inducement of the animal and resulting fear, not actual harm or the absence of an intent to frighten, X's conduct fits the offence without needing to stretch the facts at all.

Therefore, the correct answer is X has committed an offence of use of criminal force.

Was this answer helpful?
0
0

Top CLAT Legal Studies Questions

View More Questions

Top CLAT Criminal Law Questions

View More Questions

Top CLAT Questions

View More Questions