Patient with recurrent abortion diagnosed to have antiphospholipid syndrome. What will be the treatment?
- Aspirin only
- Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin
- Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin + Prednisolone
- No Treatment
The Correct Option is B
Solution and Explanation
Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is a disorder of the immune system that increases the risk of blood clots, which can lead to recurrent miscarriages during pregnancy. Managing APS, particularly in pregnant patients, involves strategies to reduce the risk of clot formation.
The recommended treatment for pregnant women with APS and a history of recurrent pregnancy loss is a combination of low-dose Aspirin and Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH). This approach aims to minimize the risk of thrombosis without significantly increasing the risk of bleeding.
The rationale for using these medications is as follows:
- Aspirin: Low-dose Aspirin acts as an antiplatelet agent, reducing the risk of clot formation by preventing platelets from aggregating.
- Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH): This anticoagulant further reduces the risk of developing clots by inhibiting the function of factors in the clotting cascade.
While prednisolone is used in some autoimmune disorders, it is not typically recommended for APS due to its side effects and insufficient evidence of efficacy in preventing pregnancy loss in this condition. Therefore, the correct and recommended treatment for a pregnant patient with APS experiencing recurrent abortions is:
Aspirin + Low molecular weight Heparin
Top NEET PG Gynaecology and Obstetrics Questions
- A partogram of a woman who is in labor is shown below. Oxytocin infusion is already given. How will you manage the condition?
- A woman presents to you at 36 weeks of gestation with complaints of breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension. Fetal movements are normal. On examination, fetal parts are not easily felt and fetal heartbeat is heard but it is muffled. Her symphysis fundal height is 41 cm. Her abdomen is tense but not tender. What is the most likely diagonosis?
- For which of the following procedures in the given OT list, can you preferably do a hysteroscopy ?
- A primigravida presents to you with anemia early in her pregnancy. She is 7 weeks pregnant as seen on ultrasound. Her hemoglobin level is 9 g/dL. When should the iron supplements be started for her?
- A 23-year-old woman accompanied by her mother-in-law comes to the infertility clinic. She has been having regular intercourse for 6 months but is not able to conceive. What is the next best step?
Top NEET PG Diagnosis of Pregnancy Questions
- Which of the following is false as physiological change in pregnancy?
- MgSO4 have no role in prevention of-
- Which of the following statement is correct about acute fatty liver of pregnancy?
- Female with 41 wk gestation confirmed by radiological investigation, very sure of her LMP, no uterine contractions, no effacement and no dilatation. What should not be done?
- Double decidua sign is seen during
Top NEET PG Questions
- A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Which of the following statements is true about Trichomonas vaginalis?
- A lady from West Rajasthan presented with an ulcer surrounded by erythema on the right leg. Microscopy of the biopsy from the edge of the ulcer showed organisms with dark staining nuclei and kinetoplast. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A child presents with a fever and a rash. Urine examination showed cells with owl's eye appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Infection with Clonorchis sinensis is associated with an increased risk of__?