Question:
Muir-Torre syndrome shows:
Muir-Torre syndrome shows:
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Look for the answer tied to sebaceous gland tumors plus internal cancers, not the NF1 or Ehlers-Danlos clues.
Updated On: Jun 24, 2026
- Sebaceous keratomas
- Lisch nodules
- Intestinal polyp
- Hyperelastic joints
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The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
Step 1: Muir-Torre syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder and a variant of hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome), caused by DNA mismatch repair gene defects.
Step 2: Its defining cutaneous feature is the sebaceous neoplasm - sebaceous adenoma, sebaceous epithelioma, sebaceous carcinoma, or keratoacanthoma. The sebaceous (keratoma) tumors are the skin marker, so option a is correct.
Step 3: These skin tumors are associated with internal visceral malignancies, especially colorectal and genitourinary cancers, which is why recognizing them matters clinically.
Step 4: Why the distractors are wrong: Lisch nodules are iris hamartomas of neurofibromatosis type 1, intestinal polyps point to polyposis syndromes like Peutz-Jeghers or FAP, and hyperelastic joints suggest Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. None of these defines Muir-Torre.
Step 2: Its defining cutaneous feature is the sebaceous neoplasm - sebaceous adenoma, sebaceous epithelioma, sebaceous carcinoma, or keratoacanthoma. The sebaceous (keratoma) tumors are the skin marker, so option a is correct.
Step 3: These skin tumors are associated with internal visceral malignancies, especially colorectal and genitourinary cancers, which is why recognizing them matters clinically.
Step 4: Why the distractors are wrong: Lisch nodules are iris hamartomas of neurofibromatosis type 1, intestinal polyps point to polyposis syndromes like Peutz-Jeghers or FAP, and hyperelastic joints suggest Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. None of these defines Muir-Torre.
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