To solve this problem, we need to understand the energy levels of a particle in an infinite potential well. The energy levels for a particle in an infinite potential well are given by the formula:
\(E_n = \frac{n^2 h^2}{8mL^2}\)
where \(n\) is the quantum number (1, 2, 3,...), \(h\) is Planck's constant, \(m\) is the mass of the particle, and \(L\) is the width of the well.
\(E_1(L_1) = \frac{h^2}{8mL_1^2}\)
\(E_3(L_2) = \frac{9h^2}{8mL_2^2}\)
\(\frac{h^2}{8mL_1^2} = \frac{9h^2}{8mL_2^2}\)
\(\frac{1}{L_1^2} = \frac{9}{L_2^2}\)
\(\frac{L_2}{L_1} = 3\)
\(\frac{L_1}{L_2} = \frac{1}{3}\)
Thus, the correct answer is \(\frac{1}{3}\).
