Consider a particle in a one-dimensional infinite potential well with its walls at \( x = 0 \) and \( x = L \). The system is perturbed as shown in the figure. The first order correction to the energy eigenvalue is 
Step 1: The particle is inside an infinite potential well, with the potential \( V(x) \) changing at the boundaries, from 0 at \( x = 0 \) to \( V_0 \) at \( x = L \).
Step 2: The first-order energy correction due to the perturbation is given by the expectation value of the potential in the unperturbed state. The perturbation is a linear increase in potential from \( V(0) = 0 \) to \( V(L) = V_0 \), so the energy correction is proportional to \( V_0 \).
Step 3: The calculation leads to a correction of \( \frac{V_0}{2} \).
Thus, the correct answer is (C).
| Column I | Column II |
(1)![]() | (P) Diamagnetic |
(2)![]() | (Q) Paramagnetic |
(3)![]() | (R) Ferromagnetic |
(4)![]() | (S) Antiferromagnetic |
Two projectile protons \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \), both with spin up (along the \( +z \)-direction), are scattered from another fixed target proton \( T \) with spin up at rest in the \( xy \)-plane, as shown in the figure. They scatter one at a time. The nuclear interaction potential between both the projectiles and the target proton is \( \hat{\lambda} \vec{L} \cdot \vec{S} \), where \( \vec{L} \) is the orbital angular momentum of the system with respect to the target, \( \vec{S} \) is the spin angular momentum of the system, and \( \lambda \) is a negative constant in appropriate units. Which one of the following is correct?
