Question:
A patient presents with a precancerous penile lesion along with abdominal swelling and palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most probable carcinoma associated with this clinical picture is:
A patient presents with a precancerous penile lesion along with abdominal swelling and palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most probable carcinoma associated with this clinical picture is:
Show Hint
Which pelvic organ drains its lymph directly to the inguinal nodes?
Updated On: Jun 23, 2026
- Carcinoma of the penis
- Carcinoma of the testis
- Carcinoma of the prostate
- Carcinoma of the bladder
Show Solution
Verified By Collegedunia
The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
Correct option: Carcinoma of the penis.
Step 1: The lymphatic drainage of the penis is to the superficial and deep inguinal nodes. So penile carcinoma classically spreads first to the inguinal lymph nodes, producing the lymphadenopathy described here.
Step 2: Penile cancer is preceded by recognised precancerous lesions (Bowen disease, erythroplasia of Queyrat, leukoplakia), which fits the precancerous lesion in the stem.
Why the others are wrong: Testicular cancer drains to the para-aortic nodes, not inguinal nodes (unless scrotal skin is breached). Prostate cancer spreads to the obturator and internal iliac nodes. Bladder cancer spreads to pelvic (iliac) nodes. None of these primarily seed the inguinal group.
Ref: Bailey and Love, Short Practice of Surgery, 27th edition, 2018.
Step 1: The lymphatic drainage of the penis is to the superficial and deep inguinal nodes. So penile carcinoma classically spreads first to the inguinal lymph nodes, producing the lymphadenopathy described here.
Step 2: Penile cancer is preceded by recognised precancerous lesions (Bowen disease, erythroplasia of Queyrat, leukoplakia), which fits the precancerous lesion in the stem.
Why the others are wrong: Testicular cancer drains to the para-aortic nodes, not inguinal nodes (unless scrotal skin is breached). Prostate cancer spreads to the obturator and internal iliac nodes. Bladder cancer spreads to pelvic (iliac) nodes. None of these primarily seed the inguinal group.
Ref: Bailey and Love, Short Practice of Surgery, 27th edition, 2018.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Top NEET PG Surgery Questions
- A 55-year-old male presented with verrucous carcinoma around the glans of the penis. Examination reveals that the inguinal lymph nodes are not enlarged. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
- Identify the procedure being performed in the image given below.
- A diabetic patient presents with sudden-onset perineal pain. On examination, foul-smelling discharge, and necrotic tissue as seen in the image is noted. Which of the following is true about the given condition?
- Which of the following is the most common complication following ligation of the first vessel during abdominoperineal resection for rectal carcinoma?(APR Abdominoperineal resection)
- A patient presents to the clinic with the lesion given in the image. He had a traumatic injury to the chest one year ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
View More Questions
Top NEET PG Questions
- A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Which of the following statements is true about Trichomonas vaginalis?
- A lady from West Rajasthan presented with an ulcer surrounded by erythema on the right leg. Microscopy of the biopsy from the edge of the ulcer showed organisms with dark staining nuclei and kinetoplast. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A child presents with a fever and a rash. Urine examination showed cells with owl's eye appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Infection with Clonorchis sinensis is associated with an increased risk of__?
View More Questions