Question:
A diabetic patient develops hypopyon 2 days after cataract surgery. What is the management?
A diabetic patient develops hypopyon 2 days after cataract surgery. What is the management?
Show Hint
Post-cataract hypopyon = acute endophthalmitis; give intravitreal antibiotics, not just drops.
Updated On: Jun 24, 2026
- Intravitreal antibiotics
- Eye drops
- Surgery
- No treatment required
Show Solution
Verified By Collegedunia
The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
Step 1: Hypopyon (a layer of pus in the anterior chamber) appearing a couple of days after intraocular surgery is acute postoperative endophthalmitis until proven otherwise. Diabetics are at higher risk. This is a sight-threatening emergency, so options (b), (c) and (d) are inappropriate as first-line care.
Step 2: The eye coats and barriers limit how much drug reaches the vitreous from topical or systemic routes, so therapeutic levels at the infected site demand direct delivery. The standard of care is an immediate vitreous tap for culture followed by intravitreal antibiotics (typically vancomycin plus ceftazidime/amikacin), which makes option (a) correct.
Step 3: Eye drops alone (b) cannot achieve adequate vitreous concentration and would let the infection progress. Vitrectomy (c) is reserved for severe cases (for example vision of light perception only, per the Endophthalmitis Vitrectomy Study) and is not the universal initial step. "No treatment" (d) risks rapid, permanent vision loss.
Step 2: The eye coats and barriers limit how much drug reaches the vitreous from topical or systemic routes, so therapeutic levels at the infected site demand direct delivery. The standard of care is an immediate vitreous tap for culture followed by intravitreal antibiotics (typically vancomycin plus ceftazidime/amikacin), which makes option (a) correct.
Step 3: Eye drops alone (b) cannot achieve adequate vitreous concentration and would let the infection progress. Vitrectomy (c) is reserved for severe cases (for example vision of light perception only, per the Endophthalmitis Vitrectomy Study) and is not the universal initial step. "No treatment" (d) risks rapid, permanent vision loss.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Top NEET PG Ophthalmology Questions
- A female presents with loss of vision in the right halves of both eyes. Where is the lesion located in the optic pathway?
- A 65-year-old diabetic woman presents with painless loss of vision. The ocular findings are shown in the image below. What is the likely diagnosis and management for this patient?
- A 5-year-old boy presents with a small nodule on the sclera as shown in the image below. What is the likely diagnosis?
- The eye examination of a 20-year-old male shows a golden ring on the iris. What is the next investigation to diagnose the condition?
- What is the dye and filter used to diagnose corneal ulcers?
View More Questions
Top NEET PG Questions
- A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Which of the following statements is true about Trichomonas vaginalis?
- A lady from West Rajasthan presented with an ulcer surrounded by erythema on the right leg. Microscopy of the biopsy from the edge of the ulcer showed organisms with dark staining nuclei and kinetoplast. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A child presents with a fever and a rash. Urine examination showed cells with owl's eye appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Infection with Clonorchis sinensis is associated with an increased risk of__?
View More Questions