Question:
A 36-year-old P2L2 woman with 9 months of secondary amenorrhea has FSH 36, LH 56, and AMH 0.5. What is the diagnosis?
A 36-year-old P2L2 woman with 9 months of secondary amenorrhea has FSH 36, LH 56, and AMH 0.5. What is the diagnosis?
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Amenorrhea with high FSH and low AMH in a woman under 40 years = premature ovarian failure.
Updated On: May 14, 2026
- PCOS
- Premature ovarian failure
- Hyperprolactinemia
- Hypothalamic amenorrhea
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The Correct Option is B
Solution and Explanation
Concept:
Premature ovarian failure, also called primary ovarian insufficiency, occurs before 40 years of age. It is characterized by amenorrhea, elevated FSH and LH, and low ovarian reserve markers such as AMH.
Step 1: Identify the age and symptom.
The patient is 36 years old and has secondary amenorrhea.
Step 2: Interpret the hormone levels.
FSH and LH are high: \[ FSH = 36, \quad LH = 56 \] AMH is low: \[ AMH = 0.5 \] This indicates reduced ovarian reserve and ovarian failure.
Step 3: Choose the diagnosis.
Ovarian failure before 40 years is called: \[ \text{Premature ovarian failure} \] Therefore, the correct answer is Premature ovarian failure.
Step 1: Identify the age and symptom.
The patient is 36 years old and has secondary amenorrhea.
Step 2: Interpret the hormone levels.
FSH and LH are high: \[ FSH = 36, \quad LH = 56 \] AMH is low: \[ AMH = 0.5 \] This indicates reduced ovarian reserve and ovarian failure.
Step 3: Choose the diagnosis.
Ovarian failure before 40 years is called: \[ \text{Premature ovarian failure} \] Therefore, the correct answer is Premature ovarian failure.
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