Question:
A 36 weeks pregnant woman has decreased fetal movements. NST shows 1 acceleration and no deceleration in 20 minutes. What is the next step?
A 36 weeks pregnant woman has decreased fetal movements. NST shows 1 acceleration and no deceleration in 20 minutes. What is the next step?
Show Hint
If NST is not reactive in 20 minutes, extend it to 40 minutes before labeling it non-reactive.
Updated On: May 14, 2026
- Emergency C-section
- Induce labor
- Wait and observe
- Continue NST for 40 min
Show Solution
Verified By Collegedunia
The Correct Option is D
Solution and Explanation
Concept:
A non-stress test is usually observed for 20 minutes. If criteria for a reactive NST are not met, it can be extended to 40 minutes to account for the fetal sleep cycle.
Step 1: Identify NST finding.
The NST shows only 1 acceleration in 20 minutes. A reactive NST generally requires at least 2 accelerations in 20 minutes.
Step 2: Understand fetal sleep cycle.
The fetus may be sleeping, so the NST duration may be extended.
Step 3: Choose next step.
The next step is: \[ \text{Continue NST for 40 minutes} \] Emergency delivery is not indicated immediately because there are no decelerations. Therefore, the correct answer is Continue NST for 40 min.
Step 1: Identify NST finding.
The NST shows only 1 acceleration in 20 minutes. A reactive NST generally requires at least 2 accelerations in 20 minutes.
Step 2: Understand fetal sleep cycle.
The fetus may be sleeping, so the NST duration may be extended.
Step 3: Choose next step.
The next step is: \[ \text{Continue NST for 40 minutes} \] Emergency delivery is not indicated immediately because there are no decelerations. Therefore, the correct answer is Continue NST for 40 min.
Was this answer helpful?
0
0
Top NEET PG Gynaecology and Obstetrics Questions
- A partogram of a woman who is in labor is shown below. Oxytocin infusion is already given. How will you manage the condition?
- A woman presents to you at 36 weeks of gestation with complaints of breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension. Fetal movements are normal. On examination, fetal parts are not easily felt and fetal heartbeat is heard but it is muffled. Her symphysis fundal height is 41 cm. Her abdomen is tense but not tender. What is the most likely diagonosis?
- For which of the following procedures in the given OT list, can you preferably do a hysteroscopy ?
- A primigravida presents to you with anemia early in her pregnancy. She is 7 weeks pregnant as seen on ultrasound. Her hemoglobin level is 9 g/dL. When should the iron supplements be started for her?
- A 23-year-old woman accompanied by her mother-in-law comes to the infertility clinic. She has been having regular intercourse for 6 months but is not able to conceive. What is the next best step?
View More Questions
Top NEET PG Obstetrics Questions
- A partogram of a woman who is in labor is shown below. Oxytocin infusion is already given. How will you manage the condition?
- A woman presents to you at 36 weeks of gestation with complaints of breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension. Fetal movements are normal. On examination, fetal parts are not easily felt and fetal heartbeat is heard but it is muffled. Her symphysis fundal height is 41 cm. Her abdomen is tense but not tender. What is the most likely diagonosis?
- A primigravida presents to you with anemia early in her pregnancy. She is 7 weeks pregnant as seen on ultrasound. Her hemoglobin level is 9 g/dL. When should the iron supplements be started for her?
- A 27-year-old pregnant G3P2L2 woman presents to you at 36+6 weeks. Ultrasound is done and shows the fetus is in a transverse lie. The liquor is adequate, the placenta is normal, and she has no risk factors. Both her previous deliveries were normal vaginal deliveries. How will you manage this patient?
- A pregnant woman comes to the clinic. She already has twins by normal delivery. Which of the following is the correct representation of her obstetric score?
View More Questions
Top NEET PG Questions
- A patient hailing from Delhi presents with fever, arthralgia, and extensive petechial rash for 3 days. Lab investigations revealed a hemoglobin of 9 g/ dL, a white blood cell count of 9000 cells/mm3, a platelet count of 20000 cells/mm3, and a prolonged bleeding time. The clotting time was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Which of the following statements is true about Trichomonas vaginalis?
- A lady from West Rajasthan presented with an ulcer surrounded by erythema on the right leg. Microscopy of the biopsy from the edge of the ulcer showed organisms with dark staining nuclei and kinetoplast. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A child presents with a fever and a rash. Urine examination showed cells with owl's eye appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Infection with Clonorchis sinensis is associated with an increased risk of__?
View More Questions