Question:
A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent headaches. On further investigation, MRI is obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent headaches. On further investigation, MRI is obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Dural-based intracranial mass with headache = think of meningioma.
Updated On: May 14, 2026
- Meningioma
- Glioma
- Medulloblastoma
- Pilocytic astrocytoma
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The Correct Option is A
Solution and Explanation
Concept:
Meningioma is an extra-axial brain tumor arising from arachnoid cap cells. On MRI, it is often seen as a well-defined dural-based mass and may show a dural tail sign.
Step 1: Identify the clinical presentation.
Recurrent headache can occur due to an intracranial mass causing pressure effect.
Step 2: Use MRI clue.
A dural-based, well-circumscribed mass on MRI strongly suggests: \[ \text{Meningioma} \]
Step 3: Differentiate from other options.
Gliomas are usually intra-axial. Medulloblastoma is more common in children and posterior fossa. Pilocytic astrocytoma is also common in children. Therefore, the correct answer is Meningioma.
Step 1: Identify the clinical presentation.
Recurrent headache can occur due to an intracranial mass causing pressure effect.
Step 2: Use MRI clue.
A dural-based, well-circumscribed mass on MRI strongly suggests: \[ \text{Meningioma} \]
Step 3: Differentiate from other options.
Gliomas are usually intra-axial. Medulloblastoma is more common in children and posterior fossa. Pilocytic astrocytoma is also common in children. Therefore, the correct answer is Meningioma.
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