Step 1: Recognize the Riemann sum.
Since
\[
\frac{2}{n}
\sum_{r=1}^{n}
f\!\left(\frac{r}{n}\right)
=
2\left(
\frac1n
\sum_{r=1}^{n}
f\!\left(\frac{r}{n}\right)
\right),
\]
as
\[
n\to\infty,
\]
it becomes
\[
2\int_0^1
\frac{x^3}{1-3x+3x^2}\,dx.
\]
Step 2: Simplify the integrand.
Observe that
\[
1-3x+3x^2
=
x^3+(1-x)^3.
\]
Hence,
\[
f(x)
=
\frac{x^3}{x^3+(1-x)^3}.
\]
Also,
\[
f(1-x)
=
\frac{(1-x)^3}{x^3+(1-x)^3}.
\]
Therefore,
\[
f(x)+f(1-x)=1.
\]
Step 3: Evaluate the integral.
Using the property
\[
\int_0^1f(x)\,dx
=
\int_0^1f(1-x)\,dx,
\]
we get
\[
2\int_0^1f(x)\,dx
=
\int_0^1\left[f(x)+f(1-x)\right]dx
=
\int_0^11\,dx
=
1.
\]
Hence,
\[
\boxed{
\lim_{n\to\infty}
\frac{2}{n}
\sum_{r=1}^{n}
f\!\left(\frac{r}{n}\right)
=1.
}
\]
Thus,
\[
\boxed{(C)}
\]
is the correct answer.